Digestive System & Fluoroscopy

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123 Terms

1
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What are the three primary functions of the digestive system?

1. intake and digestion

2. absorption

3. elimination

2
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What does the alimentary canal consist of?

oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, anus

3
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What are the accessory organs of the digestive system?

salivary glands, pancreas, liver, gallbladder

4
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What are the three salivary glands?

1. parotid (biggest)

2. submandibular

3. sublingual

<p>1. parotid (biggest)</p><p>2. submandibular</p><p>3. sublingual</p>
5
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How many mL of saliva do salivary glands secrete daily?

1000-1500 mL

6
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Does endocrine or exocrine deal with digestion?

exocrine

7
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What does the liver do?

produces bile to assist in the digestion of fats

8
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How many quarts of bile does the liver produce per day?

1

9
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What does the gallbladder do?

stores and concentrates bile

10
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What are the two important reactions that occur in order for swallowed food to enter the esophagus?

1. soft palate closes off nasopharynx

2. epiglottis is depressed to cover laryngeal opening

11
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The esophagus is located _________ to the larynx and trachea

posterior

12
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What is characterized by a large out pouching of the esophagus just above the upper esophageal sphincter?

Zenker's Diverticulum

13
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True/False: the esophagus has two indentations as it passes by the aortic arch and left primary bronchus

true

14
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What is the short segment just before connecting to the stomach and after passing through the diaphragm called?

cardiac antrum

15
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What are the two names for the opening between the esophagus and the stomach?

1. esophagogastric junction

2. cardiac orifice

16
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What is the muscle that controls the opening between the esophagus and stomach called?

cardiac sphincter

17
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What is the name of the opening leaving the distal stomach?

pyloric orifice

18
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What is the difference between an orifice and a sphincter?

- orifice is the opening

- sphincter is the muscle that controls the opening

19
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In which part of the alimentary canal does digestion and absorption occur?

small intestine (small bowel)

20
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What are the three sections the small intestine is divided into (in order)?

1. duodenum

2. jejunum

3. ileum

21
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What is the shortest, widest, and most fixed portion of the small bowel?

duodenum

22
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Which section of the duodenum is a common site of ulcer disease?

superior (first) section

23
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What are the four sections of the duodenum?

1. superior

2. descending

3. horizontal

4. ascending

<p>1. superior</p><p>2. descending</p><p>3. horizontal</p><p>4. ascending</p>
24
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Which section of the duodenum receives common bile and pancreatic ducts?

descending (second) section

25
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What is the duodenojejunal flexure held in place by?

ligament of treitz

26
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The jejunum is located primarily to the ____ of the midline

left

27
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Where does the ileum join the large intestine?

ileocecal valve in the RLQ

28
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What is chyme?

stomach contents mixed w/ stomach fluids

29
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What does NPO mean?

nil per os (nothing by mouth)

30
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What is radiolucent contrast media?

- negative contrast

- swallowed air, CO2 gas crystals, normally present gas bubble in stomach

31
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What is radiopaque contrast media?

- positive

- barium sulfate, water soluble iodinated (gastroview/gastrographin)

32
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When should barium sulfate NOT be used?

if there is any chance that the mixture might escape into the peritoneal cavity

33
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What is the difference between single and double contrast techniques?

- single uses one or the other contrast medias

- double uses both

34
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What is the ratio of BaSO4 to water for thick barium?

3 or 4:1

35
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What is the ratio of BaSO4 to water for thin barium?

1:1

36
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When putting the PT in a trendelenburg position, what are you looking for?

reflux and hiatal hernia

37
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What is the valsalva maneuver?

- bearing down like you have a bowel movement

- usually done to check for hernia's

38
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If you're using barium sulfate what should your kVp be set to?

110-125 kVp

39
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If you're using water soluble contrast (gastroview/gastrographin) what should your kVp be set to?

75-80 kVp

40
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Where is the barium located when the PT is prone (UGI)?

fundus located posteriorly so air will go to fundus and barium will be in body and pylorus

<p>fundus located posteriorly so air will go to fundus and barium will be in body and pylorus</p>
41
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Where is the barium located when the PT is supine (UGI)?

fundus is located posteriorly so barium goes to fundus

<p>fundus is located posteriorly so barium goes to fundus</p>
42
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Where is the barium located when the PT is erect (UGI)?

air rises into fundus, air-barium line is straight line

<p>air rises into fundus, air-barium line is straight line</p>
43
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Do the villi belong to the large or small intestine?

small

44
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What is the twisting of a portion of the intestine on its own mesentery leading to an obstruction called?

volvulus

45
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What are the four main parts of the large intestine?

1. cecum

2. colon

3. rectum

4. anal canal

46
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What is located inferior to the ileocecal valve?

cecum

47
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What happens when infectious agents enter the appendix?

appendicitis

48
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What is the rectal ampulla?

dilated portion of rectum located anterior to coccyx

49
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How many anteriorposterior curves does the rectum have?

2

50
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Do the haustra belong to the large or small intestine?

large

51
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Where will the air go in a supine LGI?

transverse color and sigmoid colon

52
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Which one of the procedures for the large intestine is also called the small bowel enema?

intubation method

53
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For the scout radiograph of a small bowel series where is the centering for the first hour? After the first hour?

2" above the crest; at the crest

54
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During a double contrast small bowel procedure (enteroclysis), barium passes through at a rate of how many mL per minute?

100 mL/min

55
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What position should you put your PT in in order to insert the BE tube?

sims

<p>sims</p>
56
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True/False: during a BE procedure the bag should be no more than 24 inches above the table

true

57
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What are the two options if spasms are suspected or occur during BE procedures?

1. lidocaine

2. glucagon

58
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Which of the options for spasms is mixed in the barium bag?

lidocaine

59
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Which of the options for spasms is given intravenously?

glucagon

60
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What are the two intubation procedures?

1. therapeutic

2. diagnostic

61
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What positions are done for a single contrast BE?

AP, RPO & LPO, AP Axial or AP Axial OBL, LAT rectum, post evacs

62
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What positions are done for a double contrast BE?

AP or PA, RAO & LAO, AP Axial or AP Axial OBL, RT & LT LAT Decubitus, Ventral Decubitus rectum

63
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True/False: some BEs can be done through a PTs colostomy

true

64
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What is the correct order for scheduling a PT w/ several exams?

1. ALL non contrast exams

2. nuclear medicine

3. urinary system

4. biliary systems

5. colon exams

6. esophagus, UGI, small bowel

65
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True/False: Fluoroscopy provides a static image

false

66
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When was the first fluoroscope invented and by who?

1896 by Thomas Edison

67
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What is ABC?

automatic brightness control

68
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When were image intensification tubes developed?

1948

69
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How many times brighter do image intensifiers make the image?

1000 to 6000 (some books say 500 to 8000)

70
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What is the principle advantage of image intensifiers?

increased image brightness

71
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True/False: radiographs and fluoroscopy are visualized/performed at illumination levels of 100 to 1000 lux

true

72
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What is the process of an image intensifier (in order)?

1. input phosphor

2. photocathode

3. focusing lens

4. anode

5. output phosphor

<p>1. input phosphor</p><p>2. photocathode</p><p>3. focusing lens</p><p>4. anode</p><p>5. output phosphor</p>
73
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What is the input phosphor made out of?

cesium iodide (CsI)

74
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What is the photocathode made of?

cesium (Cs) and antimony (Sb)

75
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What is the output phosphor made of?

zinc cadmium sulfide (ZnCdS)

76
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What is the flux gain of a typical image intensifier?

50

77
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What is the flux gain formula?

number of output light photons / number of input x-ray photons

<p>number of output light photons / number of input x-ray photons</p>
78
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What is the minification gain formula?

(input screen diameter / output screen diameter)^2

<p>(input screen diameter / output screen diameter)^2</p>
79
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True/False: Minification gain happens because the image is larger at the output phosphor and smaller at the input phosphor

false

80
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What is the brightness gain formula?

flux gain x minification gain

81
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True/False: as your tube gets older, PT dose increases to maintain brightness

true

82
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input phosphors (screens) range from ___ to ___ in diameter

6" (15 cm) to 12" (30 cm)

83
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What is the diameter of a typical output phosphor?

1" (2.5 cm)

84
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What are the diameters of dual focus image intensifiers?

- 9"/6" (23 cm/15 cm)

- more commonly 10"/7" (25 cm/17cm)

85
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What are the diameters of tri-focus image intensifiers?

- 10"/7"/5" (25 cm/17 cm/12 cm)

- 9"/6"/4.5" (23 cm/15 cm/10 cm)

86
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Mag mode increases resolution (spatial and contrast) and what else?

PT dose

87
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What is vignetting?

reduction in brightness at the periphery of the image

88
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True/False: the CCD's rapid discharge time eliminates image lag

true

89
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What is cinefluoroscopy used in?

cardiac catheterization

90
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__ or __ mm film cameras are used in cinefluoroscopy

16; 35

91
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__ or ___ mm film cameras are currently used in spot film cameras

70; 105

92
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True/False: spot films produce high PT dose

true

93
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What is the most common type of TV camera used?

vidicon

94
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What kind of lines are TV pixels arranged in?

raster or horizontal scan lines

95
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How many scan lines are on the typical fluoro monitor?

525

96
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What mode does digital fluoroscopy read in?

progressive mode

97
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What is the SNR in old and digital fluoroscopy?

old -> 200:1

digital -> 1000:1

98
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STAMPSBC for RAO Esophagram:

S - around waist

T - center cell @ 110 kVp

A - none

M - R marker on R side

P - PT rotated 35-40 degrees from prone, CR to T5-T6 & 1-2" to upside of midline

S - 40"

B - instruct PT to continuously swallow barium, take image after 3rd swallow

C - 14 x 17 lengthwise, slight side-to-side collimation

<p>S - around waist</p><p>T - center cell @ 110 kVp</p><p>A - none</p><p>M - R marker on R side</p><p>P - PT rotated 35-40 degrees from prone, CR to T5-T6 &amp; 1-2" to upside of midline</p><p>S - 40"</p><p>B - instruct PT to continuously swallow barium, take image after 3rd swallow</p><p>C - 14 x 17 lengthwise, slight side-to-side collimation</p>
99
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STAMPSBC for Lateral Esophagram:

S - around waist

T - center cell @ 110 kVp

A - none

M - correct marker, correct side

P - PT stands w/ side to bucky w/ arm closest above head and other holding cup, CR T5-T6 & midcoronal plane

S - 40"

B - instruct PT to continuously swallow barium, take image after 3rd swallow

C - 14 x 17 lengthwise, slight side-to-side collimation

<p>S - around waist</p><p>T - center cell @ 110 kVp</p><p>A - none</p><p>M - correct marker, correct side</p><p>P - PT stands w/ side to bucky w/ arm closest above head and other holding cup, CR T5-T6 &amp; midcoronal plane</p><p>S - 40"</p><p>B - instruct PT to continuously swallow barium, take image after 3rd swallow</p><p>C - 14 x 17 lengthwise, slight side-to-side collimation</p>
100
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STAMPSBC for AP/PA Esophagram:

S - around waist

T - center cell @ 110 kVp

A - none

M - correct marker, correct side

P - PT has back or chest to bucky & holds cup, CR T5-T6 & midline

S - 40"

B - instruct PT to continuously swallow barium, take image after 3rd swallow

C - 14 x 17 lengthwise, slight side-to-side collimation

<p>S - around waist</p><p>T - center cell @ 110 kVp</p><p>A - none</p><p>M - correct marker, correct side</p><p>P - PT has back or chest to bucky &amp; holds cup, CR T5-T6 &amp; midline</p><p>S - 40"</p><p>B - instruct PT to continuously swallow barium, take image after 3rd swallow</p><p>C - 14 x 17 lengthwise, slight side-to-side collimation</p>