BIOL 114 kill me

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Last updated 7:04 PM on 5/3/23
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1
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tuna are predatory fish that consume smaller, carnivorous fish that have fed on zooplankton. the zooplankton had fed on phytoplankton. when you eat tuna, you are consuming what level of the food chain?

a. the second trophic level
b. the third trophic level
c. the fourth trophic level
d. the first trophic level
c. the fourth trophic level
2
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which of the following is NOT a major factor in shaping the climate of a local region?

a. the intensity of solar radiation
b. global patterns of atmospheric circulation
c. the dominant herbivorous organisms of a region
d. global patters of ocean circulation
c. the dominant herbivorous organisms of a region
3
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cutting down trees in a forest can affect the flow of a river. this is an example of

a. a biotic factor affecting a biotic factor
b. an abiotic factor affecting a biotic factor
c. a abiotic factor affecting an abiotic factor
d. a biotic factor affecting an abiotic factor
d. a biotic factor affecting an abiotic factor
4
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what two factors most strongly contribute to a biome's identity?

a. soil type and elevation
b. temperature and precipitation
c. proximity to oceans and rock type
d. hemisphere and age of substrate
b. temperature and precipitation
5
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a giant puffball mushroom is capable of producing and releasing trillions of spores. with this many spores produced, why do giant puffball mushrooms undergo logistic growth in established habitats?

a. puffball mushrooms use chemicals to limit the number of spores that survive to ensure that adults have access to nutrients
b. the length of time for spore germination to occur is one factor that leads to logistic growth in all species
c. limiting resources, such as food, water, and space control the maximum population size of all species
d. mushrooms are biologically unique organisms that are incapable of experiencing exponential growth even in habitats with unlimited resources
c. limiting resources, such as food, water, and space control the maximum population size of all species
6
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the effects of pollution are generally considered to be density-independent because

a. the contamination level of any organism is unaffected by variations in population density
b. when food supplies become limited, the organisms are more likely to consume contaminated foods
c. at high densities the organisms are more likely to contact the pollutant
d. when the organisms are stresses by overcrowding, the pollutant becomes more toxic
a. the contamination level of any organism is unaffected by variations in population density
7
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the hydrologic (water) cycle includes \_______
factors.

a. only biotic
b. only abiotic
c. both biotic and abiotic
d. neither biotic nor abiotic
8
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a census number representing all the individuals in a population
population size
9
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a population has no constraints on its increase in size
exponential growth
10
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a population increases rapidly at first, then tapers to a constant value
logistic growth
11
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which of the following statements accurately describes an ecological community?

a. communities have clearly fixed boundaries and are always defined on the same scale
b. one community can be nested within a larger one
c. communities are defined as groups of four to twelve species within a given area
d. communities are groups of species that do not fluctuate over time
b. one community can be nested within a larger one
12
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which of the following states about communities is true?

a. they usually have few species of organisms
b. there can be complex interactions between the organisms that make up a community
c. they are most abundant in temperate areas
d. they are made up of animal species only
b. there can be complex interactions between the organisms that make up a community
13
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why would a food web rather than a food chain be the preferred way to represent the movement of food through the community?

a. food chains are oversimplified and suggest that a consumer eats only a single food item
b. food webs place producers at the bottom, whereas food chains place them at the top
c. food webs are based on a foundation of producers
d. actually, ecologists prefer to use food chains to describe food movements
a. food chains are oversimplified and suggest that a consumer eats only a single food item
14
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which of the following could represent the linear flow of energy within a food web?

a. wolves --\> lions --\> cheetahs
b. grass --\> shrubs --\> trees
c. sheep --\> cows --\> horses
d. grass --\> rabbits --\> foxes
d. grass --\> rabbits --\> foxes
15
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antibiotic therapy sometimes reduces the population of gut-inhabiting microorganisms. bloating and diarrhea often follow until the populations reestablish themselves. This observation suggests that these microorganisms participate in a(n) \_______
relationship with humans.

a. competitive
b. exploitative
c. mutualistic
d. pathogenic
16
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During \______
a newly created habitat is inhabited

a. primary succession
b. climax community formation
c. disturbance colonization
d. keystone recovery
17
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in which of the following situations would secondary rather than primary succession be most likely to occur?

a. on an island that has just risen out of the ocean
b. on bare ground exposed by the retreat of a glacier
c. on the surface of recently cooled lava
d. in a forest that had burned due to lightning
d. in a forest that had burned due to lightning
18
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in which of the following situations would you expect succession to take the longest?

a. a volcanic island forms far from any mainland
b. a forest fire burns 1,200 acres in texas
c. sand dunes form a new island within a half mile of a mainland
d. humans log an area and then burn remaining undergrowth
a. a volcanic island forms far from any mainland
19
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which of the following is a true statement?

a. primary succession occurs after disturbances, such as floods
b. secondary succession only occurs after human intervention
c. primary succession tends to take a longer period of time than secondary succession
d. it typically takes 25 years or less for a climax community to develop after a disturbance
c. primary succession tends to take a longer period of time than secondary succession
20
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which of the following groups of organisms would NOT be considered to be consumers?

a. herbivores
b. predators
c. decomposers
d. photosynthesizers
d. photosynthesizers
21
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which of the following series best represents the energy flow in an ecosystem?

a. sun --\> consumer --\> producer --\> metabolic heat
b. consumer --\> producer --\> decomposer --\> sun
c. producer --\> consumer --\> decomposer --\> sun
d. sun --\> producer --\> consumer --\> metabolic heat
d. sun --\> producer --\> consumer --\> metabolic heat
22
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in an ecosystem, energy differs from nutrients in that

a. energy is recycled through photosynthesis, but nutrients are recycled through the atmosphere
b. nutrients are recycled, but energy eventually moves out of the system and is lost
c. nutrients are recycled through plant roots, but energy is recycled through leaves
d. energy is recycled by producers, but nutrients are recycled by consumers
b. nutrients are recycled, but energy eventually moves out of the system and is lost
23
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in the absence of \_________, nutrients would not move from the abiotic to the biotic portion of the nutrient cycle within an ecosystem

a. producers
b. herbivores
c. carnivores
d. omnivores
a. producers
24
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an increase in ocean temperature off the coast of Oregon decreased the range of sea stars, a top predator in intertidal zones. the sea stars feed on clams, which in turn feed on small invertebrates. what do you expect to have happened to the species abundance in the intertidal communities where sea stars were no longer able to live, and so were eliminated?

a. both clams and small invertebrates increased in abundance
b. clams increased in abundance, while small invertebrates decreased
c. clams decreased in abundance, while small invertebrates increased
d. the water temperature decreased
b. clams increased in abundance, while small invertebrates decreased
25
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parasites and pathogens (disease-causing microorganisms) have what kind of relationship with their hosts?

a. mutualistic
b. neutral
c. competitive
d. exploitative
d. exploitative
26
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which of the following represents all the possible gametes that can be formed by an individual with the genetic makeup FfGgHH?

a. FGH, FgH, fGH, fgH
b. Ff, Gg, HH
c. FG, FH, Fg, fH, fG, GH, gH
d. FfGgHH, FFGGHH, ffgghh
a. FGH, FgH, fGH, fgH
27
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the leaf color of a certain plant is controlled by one gene. For that gene, the allele G\=green and g\=orange. You have a plant with green leaves but do not know whether that plant's genotype is GG or Gg. Which of the following would help you determine the plant's genotype?

a. cross the plant to another plant with green leaves
b. cross the plant to a plant with orange leaves
c. examine the leaves with a high-powered microscope to determine whether the leaf pigment is homozygous or heterozygous
d. change the environment in which the plant grows to find the conditions that cause the leaves to produce the orange color
b. cross the plant to a plant with orange leaves
28
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a chestnut-colored (red-colored) horse is paired with a cremello (cream-colored) horse. Over ten years of mating, all of their offspring are palominos (gold-covered). This pattern of inheritance is best explained by

a. complete dominance
b. incomplete dominance
c. multiple gene effects
d. environmental effects on genes
b. incomplete dominance
29
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which of the following statements is NOT true?

a. traits that are determined by the effect of more than one gene are known as polygenic
b. environmental factors can alter the effects of genes
c. most traits are under the control of more than one gene
d. a genotype is always expressed in the phenotype
d. a genotype is always expressed in the phenotype
30
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a hammer is needed to pound nails into a board. even if one has the nails, they cannot be used without first getting a hold of a hammer. this is similar to the genetic relationship known as

a. heterozygosity
b. codominance
c. epistasis
d. incomplete dominance
c. epistasis
31
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in a particular plant, two genes control leaf shape and color. round leaves (R) are dominant to jagged leaves (r). Yellow fruits (Y) are dominant to white fruits (y). A completely homozygous round-leaved, yellow-fruited plant is mated with a jagged-leaved, white-fruited plant. what are the genotypes of these plants?

a. RrYy & RrYy
b. RRYY & rryy
c. RRYY & RrYy
d. cannot determine from the information given
b. RRYY & rryy
32
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one of the first medical tests a newborn receives determines if the child has phenylketonuria (PKU). PKU is the result of a mutation is a single gene that causes mental deficiencies and a host of other phenotypes (light hair and skin color, eczema, and a "mousy"smell). By detecting PKU early, doctors are able to reduce the effect of this condition with a modified diet. PKU is an example of

a. incomplete dominance
b. a polygenic trait
c. pleiotropy
d. codominance
c. pleiotropy
33
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new alleles arise by

a. mutation
b. allele frequency
c. genetic drift
d. nonrandom mating
a. mutation
34
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a pea plant is heterozygous for the flower color gene makes gametes. what is the probability that a specific gamete contains the recessive allele for flower color?

a. 0 percent
b. 25 percent
c. 50 percent
d. 75 percent
c. 50 percent
35
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if a recessive allele causes a fatal disease that kills the affected individual before he or she can reproduce, why doesn't that allele quickly become extinct in the population?

a. alleles are never lost from a population
b. the homozygous dominant individuals protect the recessive allele in their genomes
c. the homozygous recessive individuals give their alleles to other individuals before they die from the disease
d. the recessive allele is carried in the genome of heterozygotes, who do not suffer from the disease
d. the recessive allele is carried in the genome of heterozygotes, who do not suffer from the disease
36
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two organisms that are both homozygous for a certain genetic characteristic are mated and their offspring analyzed. Which of the following statements about this situation is true?

a. both parents are heterozygotes
b. the offspring are either 100 percent homozygotes or 100 percent heterozygotes
c. the offspring represent the P generation
d. the gametes produced by the offspring will carry two alleles for this gene
b. the offspring are either 100 percent homozygotes or 100 percent heterozygotes
37
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which of the following statements regarding the evolutionary history of an organism is FALSE?

a. predictions of evolutionary relatedness based on fossil records often agree with predictions based on continental drift
b. predictions of evolutionary relatedness based on fossil evidence often agree with those based on protein sequences
c. predictions of evolutionary relatedness based on DNA usually contradict those based on anatomical evidence
d. predictions based on DNA sequences provide the strongest evidence that two organisms are related
c. predictions of evolutionary relatedness based on DNA usually contradict those based on anatomical evidence
38
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a group of scientists proposed that mammals with fur that contrasts with their background are hunted more by predators than mammals with fur that blends in with their background. after running several experiments, the scientists found that dark mice were attacked 25% of the time in a dark habitat and 75% of the time in a light habitat. the light-colored mice were attacked 25% of the time in a light habitat and 75% of the time in a dark habitat. these data

a. support the hypothesis because dark-colored mice are attacked more often in both light and dark environments
b. support the hypothesis because dark-colored mice were attacked more in light environments and light-colored mice were attacked more in dark environments
c. do not support the hypothesis because although dark-colored mice are captured more often in light environments, they are also captured more often in dark environments
d. do not support the hypothesis because light-colored mice are attacked more often in both light and dark environments
b. support the hypothesis because dark-colored mice were attacked more in light environments and light-colored mice were attacked more in dark environments
39
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the fact that small, nonfunctioning hind legs are found in skeletons of many snakes suggests that snakes

a. evolved from organisms with legs
b. are in the process of evolving legs
c. evolved from eels and lampreys (snakelike fish)
d. are really populations of lizards with severe mutation in limb development
a. evolved from organisms with legs
40
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Evolution can be described as

a. predesigned change in the genetic characteristics of a population of organisms over time
b. sudden shifts in the genetic characteristics of an individual in a population
c. isolation of populations due to geologic forces
d. a change in the genetic characteristics of a population of organisms over time
d. a change in the genetic characteristics of a population of organisms over time
41
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an examples of evolution that has been readily observed is

a. an octopus changing colors as it moves from one part of the sea floor to another
b. increased resistance of bacteria to an antibiotic that is used to kill them
c. chimpanzees learning sign language
d. humans teaching dogs to obey certain commands
b. increased resistance of bacteria to an antibiotic that is used to kill them
42
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what is the total number of alleles present for any given gene in a population of 100 individuals?

a. 50
b. 100
c. 200
d. 400
c. 200
43
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which of the following is true with regard to mutations?

a. mutations occur in response to natural selection pressures
b. mutations are more common in slowly growing organisms
c. mutations appear without regard to natural selection pressures
d. several mutations must occur at one time for a new phenotype to appear
c. mutations appear without regard to natural selection pressures
44
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insecticides are used to kill insects. however, insecticide-resistant insects are being found. what is the mechanism for this new insect trait?

a. an insect with a random mutation is not killed by the insecticide and reproduces
b. exposing insects to insecticides leads to mutations, which makes the insects resistant
c. human interference with natural processes leads to genetic drift, which results in resistant insects
d. insecticides kill all the insects in a population, and a different species of resistant insects colonizes the available resources
a. an insect with a random mutation is not killed by the insecticide and reproduces
45
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when robins lay a clutch of more than four eggs, their chicks are often malnourished because they have so many to feed. if the robins lay fewer than four eggs, they may not have any viable offspring. as a result, robins typically lay a clutch of four eggs. this is an example of

a. disruptive selection
b. directional selection
c. stabilizing selection
d. convergent evolution
c. stabilizing selection
46
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the population of a cactus species in a particular area has two to seven spines with an average of four spines per square centimeter of surface area. cacti with fewer than four spines per square centimeter are more easily eaten by the wild javelina thriving in the area. over time, the population of this cactus species in this area have an average of six spines per square centimeter of surface area. this is an example of

a. disruptive selection
b. directional selection
c. stabilizing selection
d. genetic drift
b. directional selection
47
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in a shallow bay, a population of oysters is the food source for the local crabs. the lightest colored oysters blend with the color of the rocks and the darkest colored oysters are concealed in the shadows cast by the rocks. oysters with an intermediate coloring are easily detected by the crabs and become a tasty meal for them. over time, fewer and fewer oysters display the intermediate coloring while more oysters are either the lightest coloring or the darkest coloring. this is an example of

a. disruptive selection
b. directional selection
c. stabilizing selection
d. genetic drift
a. disruptive selection
48
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bacteria reproduce asexually, so scientists classify them based on

a. dna sequence similarity and morphology
b. reproductive isolation
c. the biological species concept
d. the idea that they are all strains of the same species
a. dna sequence similarity and morphology
49
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the red-breasted nuthatch and the white-breasted nuthatch are similar in appearance and, in many regions of the United States, their ranges overlap. the two birds do not interbreed. based on this information, red-breasted and white-breasted nuthatches are

a. different species
b. different populations of the same species
c. hybrids
d. subspecies
a. different species
50
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populations within a species are connected by

a. gene flow
b. speciation
c. continental drift
d. genetic drift
a. gene flow
51
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a large population of animals is split in two by a physical barrier. over time, the genetic makeup of the two resulting populations becomes more and more different until each population becomes a separate species. this is an example of

a. sympatric speciation
b. allopatric speciation
c. genetic drift
d. natural selection
b. allopatric speciation
52
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two birds that are similar in morphology and live in the same forest exhibit different courtship behaviors.
which of the following describes the relationship of these birds?

a. these birds are the same species because they share morphology
b. these birds must have undergone convergent evolution
c. sympatric speciation could be occurring between these birds
d. coevolution is causing these birds to have similar morphology
c. sympatric speciation could be occurring between these birds
53
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at the end of my vertebral column I have three to five rudimentary bones that form my coccyx - I do not have an external tail! I also have rudimentary muscles associated with this bony structure. (But I can't activate these muscles-just like I, unfortunately, cannot wiggle my ears). My dog has several extending beyond her vertebral column to form her tail, which she readily wags. This information provides what type of evidence that Edie and I share a common, tailed ancestor?

a. homologous structure
b. embryological
c. fossil
d. biogeographical
a. homologous structure
54
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evolution is most accurately describe as a change in \____________
over time.

a. a gene
b. an individual
c. a population
d. an ecosystem
55
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traits that are inherited and that improve an individual's ability to survive and reproduce are called

a. sympatric
b. analogous
c. alleles
d. adaptations
d. adaptations
56
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a species of cave beetle that lives in total darkness is blind but has remnants of what looks like eyes. these eyespots are

a. vestigial
b. homologous
c. analogous
d. converge
a. vestigial
57
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which of the following is NOT likely to be a cause of rapid evolution in a population?

a. a changing environment
b. an organism that exhibits a rapid rate of mutation
c. an organism that reproduces very slowly
d. the immigration of individuals carrying a new allele that significantly increases reproductive success
c. an organism that reproduces very slowly
58
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UV light causes mutation within skin cells. Is UV light a major driving force in the evolution of animals?

a. Yes; UV light is always present outside and can produce both favorable and harmful mutations in skin cells. Only the favorable mutations will be passed on to the next generation
b. Yes; a mutation in the skin cell will result in an organism that is better protected from the sun. This individual will be more likely to survive and pass on this mutation to the next generation
c. No; only mutations in gametes will be passed on to the next generation. Only mutations that are passed on to offspring contribute to evolution
d. No; only mutations that have a favorable adaptive quality will be passed on to the next generation. UV light produces only harmful mutations
c. No; only mutations in gametes will be passed on to the next generation. Only mutations that are passed on to offspring contribute to evolution
59
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which of the following is NOT a step in the evolutionary process?

a. mutation results in the formation of new alleles, and sexual reproduction results in combinations of alleles
b. new genes are introduced into a population when members of that population mate with members of other species and produce offspring
c. genetic variation is inherited by the next generation of a population
d. genetic drift, gene flow, and natural selection cause allele frequencies to change over time
b. new genes are introduced into a population when members of that population mate with members of other species and produce offspring
60
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sexual selection can result in an increased frequency of alleles, which

a. may be harmful to the individual's survival but is always beneficial to its reproductive rate
b. are always beneficial to the individual's survival but may be harmful to its reproductive rate
c. are always beneficial to both the individual's survival and reproductive rates
d. may be harmful to both the individual's survival and reproductive rates
a. may be harmful to the individual's survival but is always beneficial to its reproductive rate
61
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evolution by natural selection allows species to

a. reduce mutation rate
b. decrease genetic variation
c. adjust to environmental changes
d. hybridize
c. adjust to environmental changes
62
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the faster a cheetah can run, the more likely it is to capture its prey. cheetahs with longer legs are able to run faster than those with shorter legs. although the existing cheetah population shows a variety of leg length, cheetah legs are not continuing to increase in length from one generation to the next. which of the following is a possible explanation?

a. the genes that are involved in cheetah length do not undergo mutation
b. cheetahs with long legs are reproductively isolated from cheetahs with short legs
c. natural selection does not act on traits involved in predation
d. longer cheetah leg bones are more likely to break
d. longer cheetah leg bones are more likely to break
63
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grasses have represented a significant food source for large herbivores (like cows and horses) for millennia. because it's not beneficial for plants to have their photosynthetic tissue (like blades of grass) eaten, the plants incorporate abrasive silica compounds into this tissue. In response, herbivores have developed more efficient and tougher teeth with features such as thicker, harder enamel surfaces. This scenario represents an example of

a. ecological trade-offs in the evolution of large herbivores
b. coevolution of plant and herbivore
c. an adaptation of grasses to living in terrestrial environments
d. gene flow between members of a mutually beneficial interaction
b. coevolution of plant and herbivore
64
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which of the following best describes the source of your DNA?

a. half of my DNA was inherited from my mother and half from my father
b. this question is impossible to answer without a karyotype
c. depending on my sex, all of my DNA was inherited from one parent
d. depending on my sex, 75% of my DNA was inherited from one parent, and 25% from the other
a. half of my DNA was inherited from my mother and half from my father
65
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which of the following is an example of a postzygotic barrier?

a. the gametes cannot join
b. the hybrid offspring is feeble and dies
c. the breeding seasons are different
d. the courtship behaviors are different
b. the hybrid offspring is feeble and dies
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a pool of cells is treated with a chemical that halts progress through the cell cycle. In which stage of the cell cycle would most cells be found?

a. anaphase
b. metaphase
c. cytokinesis
d. interphase
d. interphase
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the chemical reaction that represents photosynthesis is 6 H20 + 6 CO2 --\> C6H12O6 + 6 O2.

What are the reactants?

a. H2O and CO2
b. C6H12O6 and CO2
c. H2O and O2
d. C6H12O6 and O2
a. H2O and CO2
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a disaccharide consists of two

a. sugars
b. amino acids
c. peptides
d. carbons
a. sugars
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organism : population :: glucose :

a. protein
b. DNA
c. photosynthesis
d. starch
d. starch
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which of the following is in the correct sequence from smallest to largest?

a. carbon-glucose-protein-golgi apparatus
b. carbon-golgi apparatus-glucose-protein
c. glucose-protein-carbon-golgi apparatus
d. glucose-carbon- golgi apparatus-protein
a. carbon-glucose-protein-golgi apparatus
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during the process of \___________, water diffuses across a semipermeable membrane from an area where water is more concentrated to an area where water is less concentrated (it moves along the water concentration gradient).

a. active transport
b. passive transport
c. osmosis
d. pinocytosis
c. osmosis
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a screen door allows breezes to enter and aromas to exit but keeps out insects. its function most resembles

a. the golgi apparatus
b. the chromosomes
c. the nucleus
d. the cell membrane
d. the cell membrane
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what is the importance of photosynthesis to organisms other than plants?

a. all other organisms require carbon dioxide for life processes
b. the sugars made during photosynthesis are building blocks of DNA
c. all cells must have chloroplasts in order to survive
d. photosynthesis captures energy that other organisms then access when they eat either plants or organisms that eat plants
d. photosynthesis captures energy that other organisms then access when they eat either plants or organisms that eat plants
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what would be the initial outcome of decreasing the number of photosynthetic organisms on Earth with no change in the number of organisms using cellular respiration?

a. oxygen levels would increase
b. carbon dioxide levels would increase
c. more glucose would be available to animals
d. animals would access energy directly from sunlight
b. carbon dioxide levels would increase
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a teacher is paid every two weeks. she uses some of this money for essentials and puts the remainder of her money in a debit card account at a bank. The money the worker saves is analogous to the

a. conversion of ADP and phosphate into ATP
b. conversion of ATP into ADP and phosphate
c. way electrons are used to pump protons across a membrane
d. way enzymes catalyze chemical reactions in a cell
a. conversion of ADP and phosphate into ATP
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which of the following is a similarity between photosynthesis and respiration?

a. neither is a metabolic process
b. they are both metabolic processes
c. neither is an anabolic process
d. they are both mainly anabolic processes
b. they are both metabolic processes
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cancers are groups of cells that divide rapidly and uncontrollable. Thus, cancer cells

a. are always in the S phase
b. never enter into cytokinesis
c. have a relative short G1 phase
d. are stuck at the metaphase plate
c. have a relative short G1 phase
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which of the following genetic changes would NOT be passed from parent to child?

a. a mutation in a skin cell
b. the loss of a chromosome in a sperm cell
c. the addition of a chromosome in an egg cell
d. a translocation in a gamete
a. a mutation in a skin cell
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An X-linked carrier is a female individual with a \_________
genotype, on her X chromosomes, who does not express the recessive trait but can pass it along to offspring.

a. homozygous
b. heterozygous
c. recessive
d. dominant
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the gene for a certain sex-linked trait is found only on the Y chromosome. If the male parent has this gene, the trait will be expressed in

a. 100 percent of the female offspring
b. 50 percent of the female offspring
c. 100 percent of the male offspring
d. 50 percent of the male offspring
c. 100 percent of the male offspring
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if a father is affected by an X-linked recessive condition and the mother is a carrier, what is the average likelihood of their children being affected?

a. all sons will be affected
b. half of the sons will be affected
c. all daughters will be affected
d. half of the sons will be carriers
b. half of the sons will be affected
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\___________
reactions release energy by breaking down complex molecules

a. anabolic
b. photosynthetic
c. catabolic
d. synthesis
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if a recessive allele causes a fatal disease that kills the affected individual before he or she can reproduce, why doesn't that allele quickly become extinct in the population?

a. alleles are never lost from a population
b. the homozygous dominant individuals protect the recessive allele in their genomes
c. the recessive allele is carried int he genome of heterozygotes, who do not suffer from the disease
d. the homozygous recessive individuals give their alleles to other individuals before they die from the disease
c. the recessive allele is carried int he genome of heterozygotes, who do not suffer from the disease
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which of the following attributes explains carbon's prominence in living systems?

a. carbon forms weak reversible bonds
b. carbon bonds with up to three other atoms
c. carbon-based molecules can form long chains and rings
d. carbon does not form small molecules
c. carbon-based molecules can form long chains and rings
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in a human cell,

a. nearly all chemical reactions are catalyzed by enzymes
b. one enzyme usually catalyzes no more than five different chemical reactions
c. enzymes have to be constantly replaced as they are used up in the reactions that they catalyze
d. some enzymes are specialized to store activation energy
a. nearly all chemical reactions are catalyzed by enzymes
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the biosynthetic formation of large molecules is called

a. active transport
b. anabolism
c. catabolism
d. cellular respiration
b. anabolism
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which of the following pairs of processes encompasses the entire cell cycle?

a. G1 phase and mitosis
b. interphase and metaphase
c. G1 phase and G2 phase
d. mitosis and interphase
d. mitosis and interphase
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which of the following statements most accurately describes a selectively permeable membrane?

a. solutes are never able to cross the membrane
b. large molecules are always excluded from crossing the membrane
c. substances can only pass through the membrane with the help of either active or passive transport proteins
d. certain solutes move freely across the membrane by simple diffusion while other must be helped across by active or passive transport proteins some substance are completely excluded from crossing the membrane
d. certain solutes move freely across the membrane by simple diffusion while other must be helped across by active or passive transport proteins some substance are completely excluded from crossing the membrane
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gametes are produced by meiosis rather than mitosis because

a. mitosis would produce too many sister cells
b. meiosis reduces the chromosome number of gametes so that zygotes produced will have one full genome
c. meiosis doubles the chromosome number so that each gamete has twice the usual number of genes
d. meiosis ensures that the gametes are identical to the cell that produced them
b. meiosis reduces the chromosome number of gametes so that zygotes produced will have one full genome
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which of the following is NOT likely to cause a protein molecule to lose its shape and stop functioning properly?

a. pure water
b. acid
c. high temperature
d. excess salt ions
a. pure water
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which of the following is NOT an accurate distinction between saturated and unsaturated fats?

a. saturated fats typically come from animal sources, while unsaturated fats typically come from plants
b. saturated fats are typically solid at room temperature, while unsaturated fats are typically liquid
c. saturated fats contain fatty acid tails, while unsaturated fats contain nucleic acid tails
d. saturated fats do not have carbon-carbon double bonds, while unsaturated fats do
c. saturated fats contain fatty acid tails, while unsaturated fats contain nucleic acid tails
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which of the following statements about cell division is correct?

a. it is the process by which organisms grow and maintain their tissues
b. it is no longer necessary once an organism reaches maturity
c. it occurs in two sequential stages in all cells: mitosis and meiosis
d. it is the process by which fertilization occurs
a. it is the process by which organisms grow and maintain their tissues
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which of the following statements is true of proteins, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids?

a. all three types of molecules are used to store genetic information
b. each of these classes of molecules is built from its own unique set of monomers
c. none of these classes of macromolecules dissolves easily in water
d. all of these molecules are primarily used as energy-storage molecules
b. each of these classes of molecules is built from its own unique set of monomers
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if the concentration of solutes in water on side "A" of a selectively permeable membrane is 5%, and the concentration of solutes in water on side "B" of a selectively permeable membrane is 15%, which way will the water move and why?

a. the water will mostly move from side "B" to side "A" because the water concentration is higher on side "B"
b. the water will mostly move from side "B" to side "A" because the water concentration is higher on side "A"
c. the water will mostly move from side "A" to side "B" because the water concentration is higher on side "B"
d. the water will mostly move from side "A" to side "B" because the water concentration is higher on side "A"
d. the water will mostly move from side "A" to side "B" because the water concentration is higher on side "A"
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which of the following statements about cells is correct?

a. cells have been identified since ancient times
b. each organism has only one type of cell, which is specific to that organism
c. an organism's first cell (the zygote) contains a miniature yet fully-formed version of the complete organisms
d. in the modern world, cells can only develop from other cells
d. in the modern world, cells can only develop from other cells
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which of the following would be likely to enter a cell by simple diffusion?

a. water (H20), carbon dioxide (CO2), and oxygen (O2)
b. polysaccharides, large protein molecules, and low-density lipoprotein particles
c. bacteria, protists, and yeast
d. sodium ions (Na+), hydrogen ions (H+), and potassium ions (K+)
a. water (H20), carbon dioxide (CO2), and oxygen (O2)
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which of the following is the best description of cancer?

a. a problem with packaging large quantities of DNA into chromsomes
b. uncontrolled cell growth and reproduction
c. a chromosomal abnormality, e.g. trisomy
d. unregulated cellular transport
b. uncontrolled cell growth and reproduction
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when ATP breaks down in ADP and a phosphate group,

a. energy is transferred to enzymes
b. energy is released and can power other cellular activities
c. the active site in an enzyme becomes electrically charged
d. the energy in the broken bond is released to the external environment
b. energy is released and can power other cellular activities
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If a plant has a total of 18 chromosomes, how many chromosomes would be present in each of its gametes?

a. 36
b. 18
c. 9
d. 6
c. 9
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produces carbon dioxide

a. photosynthesis only
b. cellular respiration only
c. both photosynthesis and cellular respiration
d. neither photosynthesis nor cellular respiration
b. cellular respiration only