Patient Care Theory Exam 3

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Last updated 1:01 AM on 3/23/26
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123 Terms

1
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What is the outermost layer/fibrous membrane that rests against the interior part of the skull?

dura matter

2
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what is the middle of the skull with a spider web appearance that does the reabsorption of CSF?

arachnoid

3
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what is the innnermost layer of the skull that is thin and lies in direct contact with the brain?

Pia

4
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what is the filtering mechanism of the capillaries that carry blood to the brain and spinal chord tissue & keeps out neurotoxic substances?

blood brain barrier

5
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What does the CSF do?

cushions, transports nutrients and waste products

6
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What is a CT scan used to access?

bleeding, edema, tumors

7
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How long does a CT scan last?

5 min

8
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How does an MRI work?

It uses a static magnetic field to see atoms’ response to radiofrequency

9
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how long does an MRI take?

45-60 min

10
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what does a PET Scan stand for?

positive emission tomography

11
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what does a PET Scan show?

metabolic activity

12
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what needs to be injected/inhaled for a PET Scan?

radioactive isotope

13
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how long does a PET scan last?

1-2 hrs

14
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what diagnostic test uses intra-atrial injection of dye?

cerebral angiography

15
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what does cerebral angiography diagnose?

occlusion, stenosis, carotid disease, aneurysms

16
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pateints need to be on flat bedrest for 4-6 hrs after which diagnostics?

cerebral angiography and lumbar puncture

17
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What is the short name for electroencephalogrpah?

EEG

18
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What does an EEG do?

measures the electrical activity of the brain

19
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What does an EEG diagnose/evaluate?

seizure disorders, sleep disorders, tumor, brain death

20
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what diagnostic test accesses the spinal sub-arachnoid space in the lumbar area of the back?

lumbar puncture

21
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what does a lumbar puncture do?

culture & sensitivity, adjust CSF pressure, check for presence of blood, medication

22
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what should CSF look like?

clear and colorless

23
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what does ALOC stand for?

altered level of consciousness

24
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what’s the term for disorders outside the brain but in the cranial vault or disorders within the brain?

arousal structural alterations

25
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what’s the term for alterations in the delivery of energy substances/in neuronal excitability?

arousal metabolic alterations

26
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what diagnostic test would rule out bleeding and stroke?

CT scan

27
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Is confusion a normal part of aging?

no

28
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what might ALOC be related to?

infection, metabolic disorders, electrolyte imbalances, stroke

29
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what is a seizure?

sudden transient disruption in brain electrical function

30
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what is a seizure caused by?

excessive firing of a large number of neurons at the same time

31
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what are some factors that can cause a seizure?

lesion, tumor, trauma, stress, hypoglycemia

32
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what is epilepsy?

two unprovoked seizures more than 24 hrs apart

33
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what two things are required in greater abundance during a seizure?

ATP and cerebral oxygen

34
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what is the type of seizure that affects one lobe on one hemisohere?

focal

35
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what ty;e of seizure afects both sides of the brain simultaneously?

generalized

36
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which phase of a seizure leads someone to have auras?

preictal phase

37
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which phase of a seizure does someone normally have confusion, diorientation, and headaches?

postictal

38
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which medication would you give a patient via IV if they are having a seizure?

atavan 2 mg

39
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what is produced when there’s a lack of oxygen?

lactate

40
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if a seizure lasts more than 3 minutes, which kind of therapy should you start?

ASM

41
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what is the most common cause of seizures?

stroke

42
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what is meningitis?

inflammation of the meninges

43
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when meningococcal meningitis spreads from the blood to CNS, what does it become?

meningococcal meningitis

44
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what type of meningitis is fatal if left untreated?

bacterial

45
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what are manifestations of bacterial meningitis?

change in mental status, fever, increased WBC in CSF

46
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what are two treatments of meningitis?

empiric antibiotics and steroids

47
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what causes brain swelling from inflammation?

meningitis

48
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what is the term for what people have in common and what consists of common beliefs and practices?

culture

49
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what is the term for when common trends are identified?

generalizations

50
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what refers to grouping of people based on bological similarities?

race

51
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what refers to groups sharing a common social and cultural heritage and have characteristics in common?

ethnicity

52
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what is the term for the conditions in the environment where ppl are born, live, and learn

social determinants of health

53
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what are the 5 domains of social determinants of health?

economic, educational, health care access, neighborhoods, community context

54
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what is the term for a negative attitude against a specific social group?

implicit bias

55
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what si the term for a unsubstantiated belief that all people of a certain racial or ethnic group are alike in many repects?

stereotype

56
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what two types of drugs could ginseng negatively interact with?

blood thinners and diabetic medication

57
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what is the primary focus of community-based care?

prevention

58
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what level of prevention is a nurse educating high schoolers on STDs?

primary

59
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what level of prevention is providing screening programs?

secondary

60
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what level of prevention is halting disease progression

tertiary prevention

61
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what increases airway resistance?

bronchoconstriction

62
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what is hypoxia?

reduced O2 of cells in tissues

63
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define hypoxemia

reduced O2 in arterial blood

64
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what is Sp02?

peripheral 02 saturation

65
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Pa02

arterial oxygen tension

66
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is airway obstruction worse with expiration or inspiration?

expiration

67
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what’s a symptom of obstructive pulmo. disease

dyspnea

68
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what’s a sign of obstructive pulmo. disease

wheezing

69
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is asthma reversible or non-reversible?

reversible

70
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is COPD reversible or non-reversible?

non-reversible

71
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what are the 4 causes of increased airway resistance?

CONTRACTION of bronchial smooth muscle, THICKENING of bronchial mucosa, airway OBSTRUCTION, loss of lung ELASTICITY

72
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what is asthma?

chronic inflammatory lung disease of bronchial mucosa

73
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which vitamin reduces the risk of asthma?

vitamin D

74
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which type of respiratory disorder is asthma?

vitamin D

75
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what is a serum glycoprotein made by B lymphocyte cells?

antibody

76
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what is a molecule that eacts with antibodies or antigen receptors on T+B cells?

antigen

77
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what type of medication should someone take if they have airway inflammation?

antihystamine

78
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how long after an early asthmatic response does a late asthmatic response happen?

4-8 hours

79
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what are three kinds of airway hyper-responsiveness?

bronchoconstriction, airway edema, mucus production

80
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what is thr inability to speak in full sentences a manifestation of?

asthma

81
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what does it mean if someone has status asthmaticus?

unresponsive to typical rescue treatments

82
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what is the primary cause of COPD?

smoking

83
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what is the epidemiology of COPD?

long-term exposure to pollution/cigarrette smoke

84
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what is COPD in simple terms?

airflow blockage

85
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what is the term for high CO2 levels?

hypercapnia

86
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what is emphysema?

destruction of alveoli

87
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what is emphysema?

destruction of alveoli

88
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what is bronchitis?

lung tissue destruction/inflammation of bronchioles

89
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what are side effects of emphysema?

AP diameter increase, prolonged expiration, use of accessory muscles

90
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what are side effects of bronchitis?

wheezing, SOB, sputum

91
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what are side effects of COPD?

fatigue, dyspnea, bronchitis, prolonged expiratory

92
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what type of medication is warfarin?

anticoagulant

93
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which drug interferes with clotting factors that depend on vitamin K to be made?

warfarin

94
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what is the antidote of warfarin?

vitamin K

95
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when does warfarin peak?

days 5-7

96
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what are 3 things patients on warfarin should not injest?

vit K foods, NSAIDS, alcohol

97
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what type of medication is enoxaparin (Lovenox)?

anticoagulant

98
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what pharmacologic class is warfarin?

coumarin

99
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what pharmacologic class is enoxaparin?

antithrombotic

100
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what does enoxaparin do?

block clotting factors Xa and thrombin

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