NM 1- Exam 1

What is a direct impairment?

An impairment that is a direct result of the neuropathology, such as contralateral hemiparesis from a stroke.

What is an indirect impairment?

An impairment resulting from pre-existing or long-standing conditions, like muscle weakness due to disuse atrophy.

Define composite impairment.

A combination of direct and indirect impairments or multiple systems affecting function.

What does 'activity limitation' refer to?

A task or need to function as a human, which includes essentials of living.

What are participation restrictions?

Tasks that improve quality of life but are not essential for basic functioning, such as social interactions.

What is dysmetria?

Dysfunction in judging and grading distance, weight, or force, leading to hypometria or hypermetria.

What is the primary motor cortex responsible for?

Direct motor impairments due to lesions in the precentral gyrus.

What is spasticity?

A velocity-dependent increase in muscle tone, often due to disinhibition of spinal reflexes.

Define rigidity in terms of muscle tone.

Increased resistance to passive movement, seen in basal ganglia lesions, characterized by lead pipe or cogwheel rigidity.

What is ataxia?

A term for incoordination, often associated with cerebellar pathologies.

What is the role of sensory integration?

The brain's ability to organize and interpret sensory information to guide motor responses.

What are the two main somatosensory systems?

The Dorsal Column-Medial Lemniscal System and the Spinothalamic System.

What does the Dorsal Column-Medial Lemniscal System process?

Discriminative touch, proprioception, and vibration.

What does the Spinothalamic System process?

Pain, temperature, and pressure/crude touch.

What is the primary somatosensory cortex?

Located in the postcentral gyrus, it is responsible for direct somatosensory impairments.

What is the significance of the supplemental somatosensory areas?

Lesions here impact higher order functions like planning and execution of motor tasks.

What is paresis?

Weakness due to upper motor neuron lesions, affecting muscle recruitment.

What is the difference between hypotonus and hypertonus?

Hypotonus refers to decreased muscle tone, while hypertonus refers to increased muscle tone.

What is dysdiadochokinesia?

Inability to perform rapid alternating movements, often seen in cerebellar dysfunction.

What is the rebound phenomenon?

Excessive force in a limb when resistance is removed after an isometric contraction.

What characterizes dystonia?

Intermittent or sustained muscle contractions causing twisting or writhing movements.

What is chorea?

Rapid, jerky limb movements associated with basal ganglia lesions, such as in Huntington's disease.

What is proprioception?

The ability to perceive oscillation and vibratory stimuli.

What is graphesthesia?

The ability to recognize writing on the skin.

What does barognosis assess?

The ability to perceive the weight of objects.

Define stereognosis.

The ability to recognize the form and shape of objects through touch.

What is two-point discrimination?

The ability to identify whether one or two points are being felt closely spaced.

What does tactile localization refer to?

The ability to pinpoint where one has been touched.

What is the function of the spinothalamic system (ALS)?

It transmits sensory input from external stimuli to the brain, assessing pain, temperature, and crude touch.

What is diplopia?

Double vision.

What is nystagmus?

Involuntary rhythmic eye movements.

What is strabismus?

Malalignment of the eyes.

What does homonymous hemianopsia indicate?

A visual field impairment where the patient cannot see one side of the visual field, contralateral to the lesion.

What is bitemporal hemianopsia?

A lesion to the optic chiasm causing loss of peripheral vision in both eyes.

What is visual agnosia?

The inability to recognize familiar objects despite normal vision.

Define auditory agnosia.

The inability to recognize non-speech sounds, often due to temporal lobe damage.

What is anosognosia?

Unawareness of one's own condition.

What is apraxia?

The inability to perform voluntary skills or movements despite having the desire and physical capability.

What is ideomotor apraxia?

The ability to understand a task but inability to perform it on command.

What is ideational apraxia?

The inability to conceptualize a task and perform it, either on command or automatically.

What is the difference between cognition and perception?

Cognition is the act of knowing, while perception is the integration of sensory impressions into meaningful information.

What does body scheme refer to?

The relationship of body parts to each other and the environment.

What is body neglect?

The inability to register and integrate stimuli from one side of the body.

What is spatial neglect?

The inability to register and integrate stimuli from one side of the environment.

What is dysarthria?

A speech disorder resulting from upper motor neuron lesions affecting the motor speech area.

What is dysphagia?

Impaired swallowing ability, which poses a safety risk.

What is Wernicke's aphasia?

A type of aphasia where language comprehension is impaired, but speech is fluent and effortless.

What is Broca's aphasia?

A type of aphasia characterized by impaired language expression, with preserved comprehension.

What is global aphasia?

A severe form of aphasia affecting both expressive and receptive language abilities.

What is the role of cranial nerve VIII?

It is responsible for the vestibular system, which helps understand spatial orientation and movement.

What is the significance of the SOT/CITSIB outcome measure?

It determines dysfunction in somatosensory, visual, or vestibular systems related to postural control.

What is sustained attention?

The ability to attend to relevant information over an extended period.

Define focused (selective) attention.

The ability to attend to a task despite distractions in the environment.

What is alternating attention?

The ability to move between tasks effectively.

What does divided attention refer to?

The ability to respond simultaneously to two or more tasks.

What characterizes Upper Motor Neuron (UMN) lesions?

Contralateral effects to the location of the lesion, often seen in conditions like CVA, TBI, SCI, and MS.

What are the characteristics of Lower Motor Neuron (LMN) lesions?

Ipsilateral effects to the location of the lesion, associated with conditions like neuropathy and trauma.

What is sensory integration?

The brain's ability to organize, interpret, and use sensory information to guide motor responses.

What is homonymous hemianopsia?

Visual field loss on the same side as the lesion, affecting cranial nerve II.

What causes bitemporal hemianopsia?

A lesion at the optic chiasm.

What is asterognosis?

The inability to recognize the form and shape of objects by touch.

Define allodynia.

Pain produced by a non-noxious stimulus.

What is the definition of dysesthesia?

A touch sensation experienced as pain.

What is the difference between anticipatory and adaptive postural strategies?

Anticipatory strategies involve planning for expected movements, while adaptive strategies are reactive to unexpected movements.

What does the Mini BESTEST assess?

Functional balance and gait, allowing the use of assistive devices for certain portions.

What is the Tinetti/POMA used for?

To test functional balance and gait in a two-part outcome measure.

What does the PASS scale measure?

Functional sitting and standing balance, without the use of assistive devices.

What is the role of the somatosensory system in postural control?

It provides information about touch, pressure, and proprioception, giving feedback first when balance is challenged.

How does the visual system contribute to postural control?

It provides specific information about depth, surface changes, and anticipatory strategies.

What is thalamic syndrome?

A condition resulting from a vascular lesion of the thalamus causing sensory disturbances and paralysis on one side of the body.

What is paresthesia?

An abnormal sensation such as numbness, prickling, or tingling without an apparent cause.

What is the significance of postural control in neurologic populations?

It is crucial for maintaining stability and function, as impairments can lead to falls and balance issues.

What occurs at the knee during the loading response phase?

Eccentric knee extensors are activated.

What muscle actions occur at the hip during the loading response?

Concentric actions of knee and hip extensors.

What happens to the knee during terminal stance?

Minimal activity as the trailing leg is released.

What is the hip's action during preswing?

Concentric hip flexors are activated.

What occurs at the ankle during initial swing?

Concentric dorsiflexors are activated.

What is the knee's action during midswing?

Concentric knee flexors are activated.

What compensatory action occurs due to quad spasticity during the swing phase?

Increased hip flexion.

What is the significance of the 10-Meter Walk Test (10 MWT)?

It measures gait speed across various populations.

What does the Timed Up and Go (TUG) test assess?

It identifies individuals at risk for falls.

What is the scoring range for the Functional Gait Assessment (FGA)?

0 to 30, with less than 22 indicating high risk of falls.

What does the MiniBESTest evaluate?

Dynamic balance across four sections of postural control.

What type of tremor is associated with Parkinson's disease?

Resting tremor.

What is the function of the vestibular system?

Balance, spatial orientation, and postural control.

What do the semicircular canals detect?

Angular acceleration and head rotation.

What is a common neuro finding in patients with Parkinson's disease?

Trunk flexion and decreased anterior pelvic tilt.

What is the role of cognitive processing in the preparation phase of movement?

It involves receiving and processing commands before initiating movement.

What is the typical initiation process for a sit-to-stand movement?

It starts with an anterior pelvic tilt to shift the center of mass over the base of support.

What is assessed during the execution phase of a task?

Effectiveness, timing, symmetry, and use of abnormal strategies.

What does the termination phase evaluate?

The smoothness of the stop and quality of the final posture.

What is the purpose of the outcome assessment in gait analysis?

To determine if the patient achieved their goal and the level of assistance needed.

What does the FIM (Functional Independence Measure) assess?

Levels of assistance required for functional tasks.

What compensatory action occurs due to plantar flexor weakness during terminal stance?

Reduced push-off.

What is a common deviation observed in the swing phase due to ankle weakness?

Toe drag or foot drop.

What compensatory strategy may occur due to quadriceps weakness during loading response to midstance?

Excessive knee flexion or buckling.

What is the significance of assessing the environment during gait analysis?

It impacts safety and performance, especially in neuro patients.

What is the purpose of the Examination in the Patient Client Management Model?

To take a patient history, perform a systems review, and use tests and measures to understand the patient's condition.

What does the Evaluation process involve in patient management?

The therapist uses clinical judgement to interpret data from the examination to identify problems and determine a diagnosis and prognosis.

What is the definition of Diagnosis in the context of patient management?

A label that describes the impact of a condition on function, guiding the therapist in developing a Plan of Care (POC).