Bontrager Workbook Chapter 1

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229 Terms

1
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What is the lowest level of structural organization?

Chemical level.

2
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What are the 4 basic tissue types in the body?

-Connective.

-Epithelial.

-Muscular.

-Nervous.

3
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List the 10 systems in the body

-Skeletal.

-Muscular.

-Nervous.

-Endocrine.

-Integumentary.

-Respiratory.

-Reproductive.

-Circulatory.

-Urinary.

-Digestive.

4
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Which body system eliminates solid waste from the body?

Digestive system.

5
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Which body system regulates fluid and electrolyte balance and volume?

Urinary system.

6
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Which body system maintains posture?

Muscular system.

7
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Which body system regulates the body's activities through electrical impulses?

Nervous system.

8
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Which body system regulates bodily activities through various hormones?

Endocrine system.

9
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Which body system eliminates carbon dioxide from the blood?

Respiratory system.

10
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Which body system receives stimuli, such as temperature pressure and pain?

Integumentary system.

11
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Which body system reproduces an organism?

Reproductive system.

12
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Which body system helps to regulate the body's temperature?

Circulatory system.

13
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Which body system supports and protects many soft tissues of the body?

Skeletal system.

14
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True or false: one of the six circulatory system functions is to protect against disease?

True- circulatory

15
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Which system is the largest system of the body?

The integumentary system.

16
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List 2 divisions of the skeletal system

Axial and appendicular.

17
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True or false: the adult skeleton system contains 256 separate bones?

False.

18
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True or false: the scapula is part of the axial skeleton?

False.

19
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True or false: the skull is part of the axial skeleton?

True.

20
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True or false: the pelvis is part of the appendicular skeleton?

True.

21
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List the four classifications of bones

-Long.

-Short.

-Flat.

-Irregular.

22
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What is the outer covering of the long bone, which is composed of a dense fibrous membrane called?

Periosteum.

23
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Which aspect of long bones is responsible for the production of red blood cells?

Medullary aspet.

24
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Which aspect of long bone is essential for bone growth, repair, and nutrition?

Periosteum.

25
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Identify the primary and secondary growth centers for long bones.

Diaphyses- primary and epiphyses- secondary

26
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True or false: the epiphyseal fusion of the long bones is complete by the age of 16?

False.

27
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What is the name of the wider portion of a long bone in which bone growth in length occurs?

Metaphysis.

28
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List the 3 functional classifications of joints

-Synarthrosis.

-Amphiarthroses.

-Diarthroses.

29
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List the 3 structural classifications of joints

fibrous joints, cartilaginous joints, and synovial joints

30
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List the 7 types of movement for synovial joints

-Plane.

-Ginglymus.

-Ellipsoid.

-Trochoid.

-Sellar.

-Spherodial.

-Bicondylar.

31
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What is the name for the image of a patient's anatomic parts?

A radiograph.

32
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What is a central ray?

The aspect of an x-ray beam that has the least divergence.

33
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True or false: the base plane of the skull is a plane located between the infraorbital margin of the orbit and the superior margin on the external auditory means?

True.

34
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True or false: the Frankfort horizontal plane is also referred to as the mid-coronal plane?

False.

35
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What is the direction or the path of the central ray?

A projection.

36
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What is the positioning term that describes the general and specific body position?

A position.

37
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True or false: oblique and lateral positions are described according to the side of the body closest to the images receptor?

True.

38
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Ture or false: Decubitus positions always use a horizontal x-ray beam.

True.

39
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What is the name of the position in which the body is turned 90 degrees from a true AP or PA projection?

Lateral.

40
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A patient is erect with the back to the image receptor. The left side of the body is turned 45 degrees toward the image receptor. What is this position?

Left posterior oblique.

41
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A patient is recumbent facing the image receptor. The right side of the body is turned 15 degrees toward the image receptor. What is this position?

Right anterior oblique.

42
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The patient is lying on their back. The x-ray beam is directed horizontally and enters the right side of the body and exits the left side of the body. An image receptor is placed against the left side of the patient. Which position is this?

Dorsal decubitus (left lateral).

43
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A patient is lying on the left side of a cart. The x-ray beam is directed horizontally and enters the poster surface and exits the anterior aspect of the body. The image receptor is against the A surface. Which posits has been preformed?

Left lateral decubitus. (PA).

44
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Define these terms: posterior, anterior, plantar, dorsum pedis, trendelenburg, erect, supine, palmar, recumbent, fowler's.

-back half of a patient.

-front half of a patient.

-posterior foot.

-top of the foot.

-head below the feet.

-standing up.

-on their back.

-anterior hand when in anatomical position.

-lying down.

-head above the feet.

45
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What is the projection when an angle of more than 10 degrees is used?

Oblique.

46
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What is the position to view the apices of the lungs?

Lordotic.

47
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True or false: the term various describes the bending of a part outward?

False.

48
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What is the term for near the source of beginning?

Proximal.

49
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What is the term for on the opposite side?

Contralateral.

50
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What is the term for toward the center?

Medial.

51
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What is the term for toward the head end of the body?

Cephalad or superior.

52
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What is the term for away from the source or beginning?

Distal.

53
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What is the term for outside or outward?

Exterior.

54
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What is the term for on the same side?

Ipsilateral.

55
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What is the term for near the skin surface?

Superficial.

56
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What is the term for away from the head end?

Caudad or inferior.

57
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Moving or thrusting the jaw forward from the normal position is an example of what?

Protraction.

58
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To turn or bend the wrist toward the radius side is called what?

Radial deviation.

59
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Which two types of information should be imprinted on every radiographic image?

Patient information and date.

60
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True or false: a technologist has the right to refuse to perform an examination on a patient whom he or she find offensive.

False.

61
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True or false: a technologist is responsible for the professional decisions he or she makes during care of a patient.

True.

62
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True or false: the technologist is responsible for communicating with the patient to obtain pertinent clinical information.

True.

63
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True or false: the technologist is expected to provide a preliminary interpretation of radiographic findings to the referring physician.

False.

64
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True or false: the technologist must reveal confidential information pertaining to a patient who is less than 18 years of age to the patient or guardian.

False.

65
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List two rules or principles for determining positioning routines as the relate to the maximum number of projections required in a basic routine.

-A minimum of two projections 90 degrees from each other.

-A minimum of three projections when joints are in the prime interest area.

66
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Indicate the minimum number of projections required for each of the following anatomic regions: foot, chest, wrist, tibia-fibula, humerus, fifth toe, post reduction of wrist, left hip, knee, pelvis.

foot-3

chest-2

wrist-3

tib-fib -2

humerus-2

fifth toe-3

post reduction of wrist-2

left hip-2

knee-3

pelvis-1

67
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Situation: a young child enter the emergency room with a fractured forearm. After one projection is completed that confirms a fracture, the child refuses to move the forearm for any additional projections. What is the minimum number of projections that should be taken for this forearm study?

Two.

68
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If additional projections are required for a routine forearm series, what should the technologist do with the young patient described in this situation?

Rather than moving the patient, move the tube and IR as needed.

69
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The physical localization of topographic landmarks on a patient is called what?

Palpation.

70
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Which two landmarks may not be palpated because of institutional policy?

Ischial tuberosity and symphysis pubis.

71
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True or false: always place a radiographic for viewing as the image receptor sees the patient.

False.

72
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True or false: most CR and MRI images are viewed so that the patient's right is to the viewers left.

True.

73
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The radiographic analog image is composed of metallic _____ on a polyester base.

Silver.

74
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List the 4 image quality factors of a radiograph.

-Density.

-Contrast.

-Spatial resolution.

-Distortion.

75
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The range of exposure over which a film produces an acceptable image is the definition for what?

Exposure latitude.

76
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Which specific exposure factor controls the quality or penetrating ability of the x-ray beam?

kV.

77
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Exposure time is usually expressed in units of what?

Milliseconds.

78
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The primary controlling factor for the overall blackness on a radiograph is what?

Density.

79
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If the distance between the x-ray tube and image receptor is increased from 40 to 80 inches. What specific effect will it have on the radiographic density, if other factors are not changed?

Decrease the density to 25%.

80
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Which term is used to describe a radiograph that has too little density?

Underexposed.

81
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Doubling the mAs will result in ___ the density on the IR image.

Doubling.

82
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True or false: kV must be altered to change radiographic density on the IR image.

False.

83
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When analog images, using manual technique settings, are underexposed or overexposed, a minimum change in mAs of ___ is required to make a visible difference in the radiographic density.

25%-30%.

84
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What device or method may be used to compensate for the anatomic part thickness difference and produce an acceptable density on the IR image?

Compensating filters.

85
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List 3 types of compensating filters.

-Wedge.

-Trough.

-Boomerang.

86
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Which type of compensating filter is used commonly for AP projections of the thoracic spine?

Wedge.

87
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Which type of filter permits soft tissue and bony detail of the shoulder to be equally visualized?

Boomerang filter.

88
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Situation: a radiograph of the foot is produced using conventional analog cassettes. The resulting radiograph demonstrates too little density and must be repeated. The original exposure was 5 mAs. What mAs is needed to correct the density on this radiograph.

10 mAs.

89
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What is the difference in density on adjacent areas of the radiograph defined as?

Contrast.

90
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What is the primary controlling factor for radiographic contrast?

kV.

91
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List 2 scales of radiographic contrast.

High scale and low scale.

92
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True or false: a 50-kV technique produces a high-contrast image.

True.

93
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True or false: a low contrast image demonstrates more shades of gray on the image.

True.

94
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Which set of exposure factors will result in the least patient exposure and produce long scale contrast on a pA chest radiograph?

110 kV, 10 mAs.

95
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Situation: a radiograph of the hand is underexposed and must be repeated. The original technique was 55 kV and 2.5 mAs. The technologist decides to keep the mAS at the same level but change the kV to increase density. How much of an increase is needed in kV to double the density?

8 to 10 kV increase.

96
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When must a grid be used?

If the anatomic part measures great than 10 cm.

97
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What grid cutoff occurs when the CR and face of the grid are not perpendicular?

Off-level.

98
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What grid cutoff occurs when the SID is beyond the local range of the grid?

Off-focus.

99
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What grid cutoff occurs when the back of the grid is facing the x-ray tube?

Upside down.

100
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What is the recorded sharpness or structure or objects on the radiograph?

Spatial resolution.