PSYC 2150 Ch 4 Test Banks

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57 Terms

1
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Methods of detecting deception in Ancient China required suspects to do which of the following tasks?

A) Putting their hand on a hot iron

B) Walking across hot coals

C) Putting their arm in a cauldron of boiling water

D) Chewing dry rice powder

E) Chewing a piece of bread

D) Chewing dry rice powder

2
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Who developed the first polygraph test?

A) John Larson

B) William Marston

C) A group of FBI researchers

D) James Frye

E) Hugo Munsterberg

B) William Marston

3
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3. Which of the following is not measured by the

A) Heart rate

B) Galvanic skin response

C) Micro facial expressions

D) Breathing

E) The polygraph measures all of these things polygraph test

C) Micro facial expressions

4
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4. What is the name of the device, used primarily by the police to detect deceit, that measures an individual's autonomic nervous system responses?

A) A monograph

B) The Marston device

C) A neuro-spectrometer

D) A systolic blood pressure gauge

E) A polygraph

E) A polygraph

5
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5. Who provides polygraph training in Canada?

A) Canadian Security Intelligence Service

B) Federal Bureau of Investigation

C) Central Intelligence Agency

D) Canadian Police Information Centre

E) The Canadian Police College

E) The Canadian Police College

6
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6. What is the purpose of a polygraph disclosure test?

A) To help children disclose instances of neglect and abuse

B) To uncover information about an offender's past behaviour

C) To be transparent about the quality of polygraph test to defence attorneys

D) To ensure police officers are providing all information to supervisors about undercover operations

E) To get informed consent from those taking the polygraph

B) To uncover information about an offender's past behaviour

7
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Which of the following organizations are prohibited from using the polygraph to screen or test employees?

A) Intelligence agencies

B) Police services

C) Federal government agencies

D) Private management companies

E) Provincial government agencies

D) Private management companies

8
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A __________________ is a type of polygraph test that includes neutral questions that are unrelated to the crime, relevant questions concerning the crime being investigated, and comparison questions concerning the person's honesty and past history prior to the event being investigated.

A) relevant question test

B) concealed information test

C) guilty knowledge test

D) comparison question test

E) N-R-C test

D) comparison question test

9
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There are _______ steps involved in doing a polygraph exam with a suspect of a crime.

A) three

B) nine

C) four

D) six

E) twelve

D) six

10
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The question "Before the age of 45, did you ever take anything of value that did not belong to you?" is an example of what type of polygraph question?

A) Irrelevant question

B) Probable lie comparison question

C) Neutral question

D) Suppressed question

E) Leading question

B) Probable lie comparison question

11
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The question "On June 12, did you rob that bank in Winnipeg?" is an example of what type of polygraph question?

A) Probable lie question

B) Neutral question

C) Relevant question

D) Introductory question

E) Compassion question

C) Relevant question

12
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Guilty suspects are assumed to react more to ___________ questions than ___________questions.

A) comparison, relevant

B) relevant, irrelevant

C) probable lie, neutral

D) neutral, relevant

E) relevant, comparison

E) relevant, comparison

13
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What do most polygraph examiners measure when using the Comparison Question Test (CQT)?

A) Suspect's demeanour during the test

B) Information from the case file

C) Physiological responses

D) Suspect's past criminal record

E) Gaze aversion

C) Physiological responses

14
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A ____________ is a type of polygraph test designed to determine if the person knows details about a crime.

A) Deceptive-direct question test

B) Recall probe test

C) Pure version test

D) Concealed information test

E) Reverse-order recall test

D) Concealed information test

15
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Which of the following is a criticism of the Concealed Information Test?

A) It requires full disclosure from the suspect.

B) The test will only work if the suspect remembers the details of the crime.

C) Reactions to relevant questions may be the same for an anxious but innocent person as a guilty party.

D) Arousal to crime-related questions decreases over time the more a suspect is asked about them.

E) It frequently returns inconsistent results relative to other questioning methods.

B) The test will only work if the suspect remembers the details of the crime.

16
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You have been falsely accused of stealing a laptop computer from a professor's office. The police have requested that you take a polygraph test to prove your innocence. In light of your knowledge of the types of errors most likely to be made by different types of polygraph exams, you agree to do so only if the examiner uses which test?

A) Comparison question test

B) Relevant/irrelevant test

C) Zone of comparison format of scoring

D) Statement validity procedure

E) Concealed information test

E) Concealed information test

17
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Imagine you are invited to participate in a polygraph study in a forensic psychologist's laboratory. You are asked to either (a) commit a mock crime by stealing a purse from an empty room or (b) not commit the crime. You are later asked to take a polygraph examination to find out if you committed the mock crime. The researcher is using this approach to study the accuracy of polygraph tests because she is aware of the ___________________.

A) ground truth

B) the need to control for non-verbal behaviours

C) details of the crime

D) baseline behaviours

E) impossibilities associated with doing this study with non-students

E) impossibilities associated with doing this study with non-students

18
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Patrick and Iacono (1991) found in a study comparing the accuracy of "original" examiners to "blind" evaluators that the original examiners are often influenced by ________________.

A) time of day

B) type of polygraph measure

C) the blind examiners assessment

D) extra-polygraph cues

E) the style of paper used to process the results

D) extra-polygraph cues

19
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Most field studies of polygraph accuracy have used ______________ to establish who is truly guilty or innocent.

A) eyewitness testimony

B) DNA

C) confessions

D) judicial outcomes

E) statement validity analysis

C) confessions

20
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In laboratory studies of the accuracy of polygraph tests, it has been found that the Comparison Question Test is _______ effective at detecting ________ suspects, whereas the Concealed Information Test is ______ effective at detecting ________ suspects.

A) more, guilty, more, innocent

B) less, guilty, more, guilty

C) more, innocent, less, guilty

D) less, innocent, less, guilty

E) more, guilty, less, innocent

A) more, guilty, more, innocent

21
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The Concealed Information Test appears to be vulnerable to _________________ whereas the Comparison Question Test is vulnerable to ___________________.

A) falsely classifying guilty suspects as innocent, falsely classifying innocent suspects as guilty

B) falsely classifying guilty suspects as innocent, falsely classifying guilty suspects as innocent

C) falsely classifying innocent suspects as inconclusive, falsely classifying guilty suspects as innocent

D) falsely classifying innocent suspects as inconclusive, falsely classifying guilty suspects as inconclusive

E) falsely classifying innocent suspects as guilty, falsely classifying innocent suspects as guilty

A) falsely classifying guilty suspects as innocent, falsely classifying innocent suspects as guilty

22
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In an attempt beat the polygraph, Freya used a/an __________ countermeasure by biting her tongue but Mila used a/an ____________ countermeasure by counting backward by 7 from a number greater than 200.

A) ancient, mathematical

B) pain-induced, counterfactual

C) easy, hard

D) military, academic

E) physical, mental

E) physical, mental

23
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Most knowledgeable scientists have _________ beliefs and the general public have ________ beliefs about the accuracy of the comparison question test.

A) positive, positive

B) negative, neutral

C) negative, positive

D) neutral, neutral

E) negative, negative

C) negative, positive

24
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Polygraph evidence is __________ admissible in Canadian criminal courts of law.

A) always

B) often

C) sometimes

D) rarely

E) never

E) never

25
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In what case did the Supreme Court of Canada rule that polygraph evidence should not be admitted in court to help determine truthfulness?

A) R. v. Hubbert

B) R. v. Mohan

C) R. v. Swain

D) R. v. Beland

E) R. v. Frye

D) R. v. Beland

26
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Which of the following techniques has not been used as a method of detecting deception?

A) ERPs

B) fMRI

C) "Facial temperature"

D) Polygraph

E) TAT

E) TAT

27
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Imagine you have been falsely accused of a crime. You are asked to have your ________ measured by placing electrodes on the scalp and by noting changes in electrical patterns related to presentation of a stimulus.

A) IATs

B) BMIs

C) ERPs

D) CTIs

E) fMRTs

C) ERPs

28
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One type of event related potential that has shown promise is known as the ________. This ERP occurs in response to significant stimuli that occur infrequently.

A) P100

B) N100

C) P200

D) N200

E) P300

E) P300

29
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The appeal of using a brain-based lie-detection approach is researchers hope that it measures ______________ instead of _____________.

A) easier to use, harder to use

B) deception, emotional arousal

C) electrical currents, blood flow

D) truth, lies

E) P300, P100

B) deception, emotional arousal

30
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McCabe, Castel, and Rhodes (2011) examined the influence of expert evidence, based on the use of various deception detection tools, on verdicts in a mock juror trial. When was the percentage of guilty verdicts the highest?

A) An expert testified that there was increased activation of the frontal brain areas when the defendant denied killing his wife and her lover.

B) There was no expert testimony.

C) An expert testified that the temperature in the defendant's face increased when he denied killing his wife and her lover.

D) An expert testified that the defendant's blood pressure increased when he denied killing his wife and her lover.

E) An expert testified that the defendant averted gaze when he denied killing his wife and her lover.

A) An expert testified that there was increased activation of the frontal brain areas when the defendant denied killing his wife and her lover.

31
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Which non-verbal cue has consistently been found to indicate deception?

A) Smiling

B) Gaze aversion

C) Self-manipulations (e.g., fidgeting)

D) Blinking

E) None of the above

E) None of the above

32
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In a study on beliefs about lying, what was the most common stereotype about liars?

A) Liars avoid eye contact.

B) Gut instincts are reliable indicators of deception.

C) People telling the truth never say they don't remember.

D) Liars often fidget and blink excessively.

E) Liars speak with a higher pitch of voice.

A) Liars avoid eye contact.

33
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Which of the following was not listed in the text as a myth for detecting deception?

A) Only antisocial people tell lies

B) Avoidance of eye contact

C) Deception detection is easy

D) Liars fidget more than truth-tellers

Men are better at catching lies than women

D) Liars fidget more than truth-tellers

34
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Recent research by Matsumoto, Hwang, Skinner, and Frank (2011) has recommended that during interrogations, investigators should pay attention not only to what a suspect says but also the suspect's face. Why was this recommendation made?

A) Evidence suggests facial temperature increases when suspects are lying.

B) Studies have found that eye movements and gaze aversion are indicative of deception.

C) Research suggests that micro facial expressions reflect the true emotions someone is feeling.

D) Truth tellers have been found to display greater facial movements relative to liars.

E) An increase in mouth and forehead movements have been linked to telling a lie.

C) Research suggests that micro facial expressions reflect the true emotions someone is feeling.

35
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Which verbal indicator has been most strongly associated with deception?

A) Speech fillers

B) Voice pitch

C) Speech pauses

D) Speech errors (e.g., slips of the tongue)

E) Rate of speech

B) Voice pitch

36
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Which one of the following statements concerning deception detection is accurate?

A) Deception judgments depend more on the liar than the judge.

B) Professionals are consistently better than laypersons at detecting deception.

C) Relatives lying about killing their loved ones are more likely to smile than innocent suspects.

D) Judgments of truthfulness are dependent upon the personality of the judge.

E) Complex lies are associated with fewer cues to deception relative to simple lies.

A) Deception judgments depend more on the liar than the judge.

37
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Which of the following statements is false?

A) Liars consistently provide fewer details than truth-tellers.

B) Truth-tellers are less likely to change their stories.

C) Liars are less likely to admit to lack of memory.

D) Liars' stories are less fluent than the stories of truth-tellers.

E) Liars tell less compelling stories than truth-tellers.

B) Truth-tellers are less likely to change their stories.

38
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According to the meta-analysis by Aamodt and Custer (2006), the average accurate rate for detecting deception for "professional lie catchers" was _____________.

A) under 5%

B) around 10%

C) around 55%

D) around 25%

E) around 90%

C) around 55%

39
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For _____________ lies, police officers were not very accurate at detecting deception but are much better when the lies are _____________.

A) multiple, single

B) small, big

C) elaborate, simple

D) low-stakes, high-stakes

E) fabricated, orchestrated

D) low-stakes, high-stakes

40
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What refers to the tendency of people to judge more messages as truthful than deceptive?

A) Lie bias

B) Confidence bias

C) Fabrication bias

D) Fundamental attribution error

E) Truth bias

E) Truth bias

41
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What is a recommendation concerning training programs for improving deception detection abilities in professionals?

A) Utilizing new techniques such as thermal imaging and voice stress analysis.

B) Teaching professionals how to elicit cues to deception in interviewing.

C) Focusing on teaching both deception cues and truthfulness cues to counteract lie biases in professional populations.

D) Instructing police officers to go "back to the basics" and rely on their gut instincts in determining truthfulness.

E) Focusing on behavioural cues to deception and debunking myths about verbal cues.

C) Focusing on teaching both deception cues and truthfulness cues to counteract lie biases in professional populations.

42
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What disorder consists of symptoms that are intentionally produced or falsified in the absence of obvious external rewards?

A) Munchausen syndrome

B) Malingering disorder

C) Factitious disorder

D) Somatoform disorder

E) Non-deceptive disorder

C) Factitious disorder

43
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What is the name of a rare factitious disorder in which a person intentionally produces an illness in their child?

A) Conversion disorder

B) Malingering

C) Inversion disorder

D) Parentification

E) Munchausen syndrome by proxy

E) Munchausen syndrome by proxy

44
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What are the two key components of malingering?

A) External incentive and intentional symptoms

B) Unintentional symptoms and no external incentive

C) Intentional symptoms no external incentive

D) External symptom and intentional incentive

E) Unintentional symptoms and external incentive

A) External incentive and intentional symptoms

45
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The opposite of malingering is called _______________. This is the conscious denial or extreme minimization of physical or psychological symptoms.

A) denialism

B) distance-minimization tactic

C) defensiveness

D) downplaying disorder

E) polarization

C) defensiveness

46
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Richard Roger provided three explanatory models of malingering. What does the pathogenic model assume about people?

A) They are motivated to avoid a stressful personal situation.

B) They are motivated to malinger because of an underlying mental disorder.

C) They are motivated to avoid legal consequences.

D) They are motivated by economic gain.

E) They are motivated to impress others.

B) They are motivated to malinger because of an underlying mental disorder.

47
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In Richard Roger's three explanatory models of malingering, what does the criminological model assume about people?

A) They are motivated to avoid a stressful personal situation.

B) They are motivated to malinger because of an underlying mental disorder.

C) They are motivated to avoid legal consequences.

D) They are motivated by economic gain.

E) They are motivated to impress others.

C) They are motivated to avoid legal consequences.

48
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What is the most common research design used to study malingering?

A) Known-groups

B) Simulation

C) Case study

D) Cross-sequential

E) Cross-sectional

B) Simulation

49
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A study of malingering that uses a group of people who has the mental disorder and malingers the symptoms is known as the _____________ group.

A) non-clinical experimental

B) non-clinical control

C) clinical experimental

D) clinical control

E) mixed design

C) clinical experimental

50
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A study of malingering that has the mental disorder being studied but does not attempt to malinger symptoms is known as the _____________ group.

A) non-clinical experimental

B) non-clinical control

C) clinical experimental

D) clinical control

E) mixed design

D) clinical control

51
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A study of malingering that uses a group of people who does not have the mental disorder being studied and malingers the symptoms is known as the _____________ group.

A) non-clinical experimental

B) non-clinical control

C) clinical experimental

D) clinical control

E) mixed design

A) non-clinical experimental

52
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Which statement is true of the ethical aspects of research on malingering?

A) Studies on malingering most often provide negative incentives to participants.

B) Ethics boards have disallowed the use of deception by experimenters in the study of malingering.

C) While deception by experimenters has been used in research on malingering, the participants usually remain unmotivated by the made-up incentives.

D) Researchers must often balance ethical concerns with attempts to increase the internal validity of their study.

E) Academic journal articles will not publish research on malingering.

D) Researchers must often balance ethical concerns with attempts to increase the internal validity of their study.

53
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The ___________ design involves two stages: (1) the establishment of the criterion groups (e.g., genuine patients and malingerers) and (2) an analysis of the similarities and differences between these criterion groups.

A) mixed

B) known-groups

C) between-participant

D) within-participant

E) matched-groupings

B) known-groups

54
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Which of the following is not a cue to malingered psychosis in criminal defendants?

A) Hallucinations with delusions

B) Understandable motive for committing crime

C) Absence of subtle signs of psychosis

D) Presence of a partner in the crime

E) Visual hallucinations in black and white

A) Hallucinations with delusions

55
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The Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms includes which of the following scales?

A) Suggestibility

B) Criminal motivation for offending

C) Sudden emergence of psychotic symptoms

D) Blatant symptoms

E) Compliance symptoms

D) Blatant symptoms

56
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The Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms is comprised of ______ scales?

A) five

B) eight

C) twelve

D) three

E) nineteen

B) eight

57
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The MMPI-2-RF has developed new validity scales to help detect malingering and three studies have investigated the validity of these new scales designed to identify. Across these studies, it was determined that the MMPI-2-RF scales were ________________ for detecting feigned mental disorders.

A) reverse coded incorrectly

B) effective

C) coded fully

D) incomplete

E) ineffective

B) effective