DISEASE, PATHOLOGIES, MEDICATIONS, AND TREATMENTS

Infectious diseases

What type of diseases have remained at the top 10 causes of death worldwide according to a 2019 WHO study?

Diseases that are previously gone, unrecognized, or a novel strain to a microbe

What is the definition of emerging and re-emerging infections?

Very widespread infectious diseases

What classification of infectious diseases involves 100 million to 1 billion new cases per year?

Contagious infectious diseases

What classification of infectious diseases has an average basic reproduction number (R0) of 1-5?

Extremely contagious infectious diseases

What classification of infectious diseases has an average basic reproduction number (R0) of 7-12?

HIV/AIDS (Human Immunodeficiency Virus/Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome)

What disease is considered the prototype of an emerging infection of the 20th century, first recognized in 1981?

Newly emerging infectious diseases

What category of emerging infectious disease includes those recognized in humans for the first time, such as COVID-19 (2019) or SARS (2002)?

Re-emerging infectious diseases

What category of infectious disease includes diseases that reappear either in new locations or in resistant forms, such as methicillin-resistant S. aureus or drug-resistant malaria?

Accidentally emerging infectious diseases

What category of emerging infectious disease includes those created by humans that are released unintentionally, such as epizootic vaccinia?

Microbial adaptation

What contributing factor for the emergence of diseases involves new viral strains arising through mutation, recombination, or reassortment?

Bioterrorism agents

What are microorganisms (or toxins) that could be used to produce death and disease in humans, animals, or plants for terrorist purposes?

Category A agents

What classification of bioterrorism agents are high-priority because they are easily disseminated, result in high mortality rates, and have the potential for major public health impact?

Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis), Botulism (Clostridium botulinum toxin), Plague (Yersinia pestis), Smallpox (Variola major), Tularemia (Francisella tularensis), and Viral hemorrhagic fevers

What are examples of Category A bioterrorism agents/diseases?

Ricin toxin from Ricinus communis (castor beans)

What specific toxin derived from castor beans is listed under Category B bioterrorism agents?

Nipah virus and hantavirus

What emerging infectious diseases are listed as Category C bioterrorism agents?

End TB Strategy

What technical framework sets milestones and targets for reduction in TB cases and deaths, aiming for a 90% reduction in deaths and 80% reduction in incidence by 2030?

WHO Global technical strategy for malaria 2016-2030

What technical framework guides regional and country programs toward malaria control and elimination, aiming for at least a 90% reduction in malaria case incidence and mortality rates by 2030?

Mpox virus

What is the etiology of Mpox disease, categorized as an enveloped, double-stranded DNA virus?

Clade one (I)

What distinct genetic clade of Mpox virus is more transmissible and causes more severe disease, primarily in Central Africa (Congo basin)?

Clade two (II)

What distinct genetic clade of Mpox virus circulates globally and was primarily isolated in West Africa?

Lymphadenopathy

What is the very prominent sign that is a key distinguishing feature of Mpox compared to other similar diseases?

Macules papules vesicles pustules crusts

What is the usual progression of skin lesions in Mpox?

Secondary bacterial infections, Sepsis, Pneumonia

What are potential complications of Mpox infection?

Nucleic Acid Amplification Test (NAAT)

What is the recommended test for laboratory confirmation of Mpox in lesional material, typically using real-time or conventional PCR?

RITM (Research Institute for Tropical Medicine)

What Philippine institution serves as the national reference laboratory for confirmatory Mpox testing?

Triple packaging technique

What containment method involves placing the sample/swab inside a cryovial (primary container), securing it with parafilm, placing it in a conical tube (secondary container), and then wrapping it in a transfer bag (ziplock) for transport?

Mainly supportive and symptomatic relief

What is the main focus of management for Mpox, which is usually self-limited?

Tecovirimat (TPOXX)

What available treatment modality for Mpox is a potent inhibitor of an orthopoxvirus protein required for the formation of an infectious virus particle?

Brincidofovir (CMX001 or Tembexa)

What available treatment modality for Mpox is a prodrug of cidofovir, approved by the FDA for treating human smallpox disease?

Magic or miracle mouthwashes

What prescription solutions are used to manage pain from oral lesions in Mpox?

Stool softeners, sitz baths, analgesics (paracetamol), and topical anesthetics

What supportive care treatments are used for proctitis caused by Mpox?

Smallpox vaccination

What pre-exposure prophylactic measure is reported to be about 85% effective in preventing Mpox?

MVA Vaccine (JYNNEOS)

What modified vaccinia virus, live vaccine, is approved for smallpox and Mpox in individuals 18 years and older, recommended for pre- and postexposure prophylaxis in immunocompromised or HIV patients?

ACAM2000

What single-dose live vaccine is approved for smallpox but is contraindicated in immunocompromised patients due to the risk of serious complications?

Polysaccharide capsules

What virulence factor produced by S. aureus aids in adherence and allows the bacteria to infect and invade?

Alpha-toxin

What S. aureus bacterial toxin forms membrane pores that allow calcium to enter the cell, potentially causing cell death?

Beta-toxin

What S. aureus bacterial toxin is a sphingomyelinase that helps degrade parts of the cell?

Exfoliative A and B Toxins

What S. aureus toxins are serine proteases that cleave desmoglein 1, causing detachment of keratinocytes and resulting in skin exfoliation?

Ritter Disease (Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome - SSSS)

What toxin-mediated disease caused by S. aureus involves desquamation at the granulosa layer (split happens within the epidermis)?

Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)

What S. aureus disease is due to superantigens causing polyclonal T cell proliferation and release of IL-1 and TNF, leading to shock, renal failure, and generalized erythematous rash?

Pneumatocele

What condition, characterized by intrapulmonary gas-filled cystic spaces, presents in respiratory infections caused by S. aureus?

MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus)

What resistant S. aureus strain was initially found mostly in health care settings but now also infects in the community setting?

Staphylococcus epidermidis (S. epidermidis)

What coagulase-negative staphylococcal species causes infections in catheterized patients, those with prosthetic cardiac valves, and IV drug users using unsterilized needles?

Staphylococcus saprophyticus (S. saprophyticus)

What staphylococcal species causes urinary tract infection (UTI) in young women?

Streptococcus pyogenes (S. pyogenes)

What Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus causes rheumatic fever, scarlet fever, glomerulonephritis, and necrotizing fasciitis?

Rheumatic fever

What pathology is caused by S. pyogenes, where antistreptococcal M protein antibodies and T cells cross-react with cardiac proteins?

Erysipelas

What pathology, caused by exotoxins from superficial S. pyogenes infection, presents as a rapidly spreading erythematous cutaneous swelling, often with a butterfly distribution on the face?

Streptococcal pharyngitis

What infection caused by S. pyogenes is a major antecedent of glomerulonephritis?

Scarlet fever

What disease caused by S. pyogenes is usually seen in pediatric patients and presents with a punctate erythematous rash over the trunk and extremities, often with circumoral pallor?

M protein

What virulence factor of S. pyogenes is anti-phagocytic?

Streptococcus agalactiae (S. agalactiae)

What Group B beta-hemolytic Streptococcus colonizes the female genital tract and can cause chorioamnionitis, neonatal sepsis, and meningitis?

Streptococcus pneumoniae (S. pneumoniae)

What alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus causes community-acquired pneumonia and suppurative meningitis?

Streptococcus mutans (S. mutans)

What viridans Streptococcus is a common cause of dental caries, converting sucrose to lactic acid and promoting plaque formation?

Enterococci

What Gram-positive cocci in chains cause endocarditis and UTI, are resistant to common antibiotics, and possess an antiphagocytic capsule?

Diphtheria (Corynebacterium diphtheriae)

What bacterial infection is characterized by slender Gram-positive rods, transmitted person-to-person via respiratory droplets or skin exudate?

Phage-encoded A-B toxin

What toxin, produced by C. diphtheriae, blocks host cell protein synthesis by inhibiting Elongation Factor-2?

Pseudomembrane formation

What classical finding results from C. diphtheriae toxin-mediated epithelial necrosis and exudation in the airways?

Vaccines (Formalin-fixed toxin/inactivated toxoid)

What type of treatment protects against the diphtheria toxoid, not the bacteria itself?

Listeria monocytogenes

What Gram-positive bacillus is usually food-borne and is an important cause of severe infection in pregnant women and neonates?

Listeriolysin O

What pore-forming protein helps L. monocytogenes escape the phagolysosome?

Act A

What surface protein of L. monocytogenes induces actin polymerization, propelling the bacteria into adjacent uninfected cells ("actin rockets")?

Cutaneous Anthrax

What clinical form of anthrax results in a black, crusted eschar following a ruptured vesicle?

Inhalational Anthrax

What clinical form of anthrax results from inhaling airborne spores, leading to hemorrhagic mediastinitis and high mortality?

Antiphagocytic polyglutamyl capsule

What structure does B. anthracis possess that helps it avoid the human immune system?

Protective antigen (PA)

What B subunit of the B. anthracis toxin binds to the endothelial receptor and against which antibodies are protective?

Edema Factor (EF)

What A subunit of the B. anthracis toxin converts ATP to cAMP, altering cell function?

Nocardia species (Nocardial infections)

What aerobic, Gram-positive bacteria found in soil are visualized using modified, acid-fast stains like Fite-Faraco?

Nocardia asteroides

What Nocardia species causes opportunistic respiratory infections in the immunocompromised that can disseminate from the lungs to the CNS?

Neisseria meningitidis

What Neisseria species relies on the complement system (C5 to C9 proteins) for defense against meningococcal disease?

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

What Neisseria species is the second most common bacterial STD, causing neonatal conjunctivitis?

Ocular antibiotics

What treatment is commonly administered to newborns to prevent neonatal conjunctivitis caused by N. gonorrhoeae?

Pertussis Toxin (A-B Toxin)

What virulence factor of B. pertussis inactivates guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins), inhibiting immune cells, and paralyzing cilia?

Toxic Adenylate Cyclase

What virulence factor of B. pertussis converts ATP to cAMP, which inhibits phagocytosis and oxidative burst in neutrophils?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

What opportunistic aerobic Gram-negative bacillus kills patients with cystic fibrosis/severe burns, is usually resistant to antibiotics, and commonly causes hospital-acquired infections?

A-B Exotoxin

What virulence factor of P. aeruginosa inhibits protein synthesis by ADP ribosylation of Elongation Factor-2 (EF-2)?

Alginate

What mucoid exopolysaccharide virulence factor of P. aeruginosa forms a biofilm, protecting the bacteria from the immune system and antibiotics, particularly seen in cystic fibrosis patients?

Ecthyma gangrenosum

What clinical manifestation of P. aeruginosa involves multiple well-demarcated necrotic and hemorrhagic oval skin lesions?

Bubonic Plague

What common manifestation of Yersinia pestis infection involves enlarged, infected, soft, and pulpy lymph nodes ("Bubo") that may rupture and drain pus?

YopE, YopH, YopT

What Yops proteins injected by Yersinia pestis block phagocytosis by inactivating actin polymerization?

Chancroid (soft chancre)

What STD caused by Haemophilus ducreyi presents as a tender papule that erodes into a painful ulcer with shaggy, yellow-gray exudate?

Donovan bodies

What minute, encapsulated coccobacilli are seen within macrophages on Giemsa-stained smears of Granuloma Inguinale (Klebsiella granulomatis)?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (M. tuberculosis)

What slender, aerobic, acid-fast rod causes chronic pulmonary and systemic disease and is transmitted human-to-human via aerosols?

Phagosomal manipulation

What mechanism does M. tuberculosis use to inhibit phagolysosome formation, allowing it to proliferate within alveolar macrophages?

Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)

What cytokine stimulates phagolysosome maturation and mobilizes antimicrobial peptides (defensins) against M. tuberculosis?

Granulomatous inflammation

What classic morphology results from the body's response to mycobacterial infection, involving activated macrophages forming a granuloma?

Caseation necrosis

What central pathology occurs when the granuloma formed in response to M. tuberculosis fails to contain the infection?

Primary Tuberculosis

What infection occurs in a non-immune host, resembling acute bacterial pneumonia with lung consolidation, hilar adenopathy, and pleural effusion?

Miliary tuberculosis

What severe form of tuberculosis involves lymphohematogenous dissemination, characterized by numerous millet seed-like foci throughout various organs?

Secondary Tuberculosis

What infection occurs in a previously sensitized host and is characterized by apical lung lesions with cavitation?

Bloody sputum (Hemoptysis)

What major symptom of secondary tuberculosis occurs due to the erosion of bronchi/airways caused by severe cavitation lesions?

GeneXpert PCR

What fast PCR test is used for TB detection of the organism and the gene for Rifampin resistance?

Ghon focus

What is the 1-1.5 cm area of gray-white inflammation and consolidation that forms as sensitization develops in primary pulmonary TB?

Ranke complex

What pathology results from the progressive fibrosis and calcification of a Ghon complex (lung lesion + regional node lesion)?

Aspergillus infection (Aspergillosis)

What fungus can colonize the cavities left behind by previous TB infections, forming "fungus balls"?

Pott disease

What isolated tuberculosis condition involves the spinal area and can cause fractures?

Scrofula

What term refers to tuberculosis lymphadenitis occurring in the cervical region?

Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)

What complex causes widespread disseminated infections in T-cell immunodeficiencies (like HIV/AIDS), characterized by abundant acid-fast bacilli in macrophages and rare granulomas?

Leprosy (Hansen disease)

What chronic infection, caused by Mycobacterium leprae, mainly affects the skin and peripheral nerves, replicating primarily in cool tissues?

Tuberculoid (Paucibacillary) Leprosy

What less severe form of leprosy involves dry, scaly skin lesions lacking sensation, asymmetric involvement of large peripheral nerves, and a strong TH1 response?

Lepromatous (Multibacillary) Leprosy

What more severe form of leprosy involves symmetric skin thickening/nodules, a weak TH1 response, and can lead to Leonine facies?