PATHO 2 nclex practice questions on skin and diseases abse don slides

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50 Terms

1
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A patient develops a widespread red rash two days after starting antibiotics. Which type of reaction is most likely?
a) Contact dermatitis
b) Drug-induced hypersensitivity
c) Atopic dermatitis
d) Psoriasis

Drug-induced hypersensitivity

2
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Stevens-Johnson syndrome is most often triggered by:
a) Food allergies
b) Viral infections
c) Medications
d) Sun exposure

c) Medications

3
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Which assessment finding requires immediate action in a patient with suspected toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)?
a) Pruritus
b) Skin peeling
c) Oral mucosal involvement
d) Mild erythema

Oral mucosal involvement

4
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Which drug class is most frequently implicated in erythema multiforme major?
a) Antibiotics
b) Antihypertensives
c) Antacids
d) Analgesics

– Antibiotics often trigger erythema multiforme major.

5
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A nurse identifies symmetrical target lesions after new medication exposure. Which condition is suspected?
a) Psoriasis
b) Erythema multiforme
c) Urticaria
d) Lichen planus

b) Erythema multiforme

6
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Which skin disorder is associated with silvery scales on extensor surfaces?
a) Psoriasis
b) Lichen planus
c) Eczema
d) Seborrheic dermatitis

a) Psoriasis

7
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The “herald patch” is characteristic of:
a) Psoriasis
b) Pityriasis rosea
c) Lichen planus
d) Erythema multiforme

Pityriasis rosea → herald patch then rash.

8
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Wickham striae (fine white lines) are diagnostic of:
a) Psoriasis
b) Pityriasis rosea
c) Lichen planus
d) Seborrheic keratosis

c) Lichen planus

9
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Which papulosquamous disorder is autoimmune with T-cell involvement?
a) Psoriasis
b) Pityriasis rosea
c) Lichen simplex chronicus
d) Seborrheic dermatitis

a – Psoriasis = autoimmune T-cell mediated.

10
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A patient presents with salmon-colored lesions following a single large scaly patch. Which diagnosis is most likely?
a) Psoriasis
b) Lichen planus
c) Pityriasis rosea
d) Tinea corporis

c) Pityriasis rosea

11
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Severe itching at night with burrows between the fingers is most consistent with:
a) Psoriasis
b) Pediculosis
c) Scabies
d) Eczema

c) Scabies

12
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Which organism causes pediculosis capitis?
a) Sarcoptes scabiei
b) Pediculus humanus capitis
c) Candida albicans
d) Staphylococcus aureus

b – Pediculus humanus capitis = head lice.

13
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A nurse is teaching parents about scabies. Which instruction is most important?
a) Wash clothes in cold water
b) Use topical permethrin as directed
c) Expose children to sunlight
d) Apply hydrocortisone cream only

Use topical permethrin as directed

14
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Which finding is characteristic of pediculosis corporis?
a) Linear burrows
b) Itchy scalp
c) Itching with small red papules on trunk
d) Silver scaling plaques

Itching with small red papules on trunk

15
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  1. What is the mode of transmission of scabies?
    a) Inhalation
    b) Direct skin-to-skin contact
    c) Contaminated water
    d) Airborne droplets

b) Direct skin-to-skin contact

16
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Non-blanchable redness over the sacrum is which stage?
a) Stage I
b) Stage II
c) Stage III
d) Stage IV

a)stage 1

17
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Partial-thickness skin loss with blister formation is which stage?
a) Stage I
b) Stage II
c) Stage III
d) Stage IV

b – Stage II = partial thickness, blister.

18
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Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat but not bone is:
a) Stage I
b) Stage II
c) Stage III
d) Stage IV

c) Stage III

19
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Which factor increases risk of pressure ulcer development?
a) Hypertension
b) Immobility
c) Frequent repositioning
d) Adequate protein intake

b) Immobility

20
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Stage IV pressure injury differs from stage III by involving:
a) Epidermis only
b) Subcutaneous fat
c) Muscle, bone, or supporting structures
d) Dermis only

Muscle, bone, or supporting structures

21
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Which skin cancer is most lethal?
a) Basal cell carcinoma
b) Squamous cell carcinoma
c) Melanoma
d) Actinic keratosis

c – Melanoma = most lethal skin cancer.

22
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A pearly, rolled-edge lesion on the nose most likely represents:
a) Basal cell carcinoma
b) Squamous cell carcinoma
c) Melanoma
d) Seborrheic keratosis

a – Pearly rolled edges = basal cell carcinoma.

23
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A red, scaly lesion that may ulcerate is most consistent with:
a) Basal cell carcinoma
b) Squamous cell carcinoma
c) Melanoma
d) Nevus

b – Red, scaly lesion = squamous cell carcinoma.

24
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Which feature in a mole is most concerning for melanoma?
a) Symmetry
b) Regular borders
c) Varied color
d) Small size

c) Varied color

25
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Which precursor lesion may progress to squamous cell carcinoma?
a) Actinic keratosis
b) Skin tags
c) Seborrheic keratosis
d) Lentigines

a – Actinic keratosis is precancerous → SCC risk.

26
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A flat, red-purple vascular birthmark on the face is most likely:
a) Mongolian spot
b) Port-wine stain
c) Strawberry hemangioma
d) Nevus simplex

b – Port-wine stain = vascular malformation.

27
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Bluish-black pigmented areas on a newborn’s lower back are called:
a) Port-wine stains
b) Mongolian spots
c) Hemangiomas
d) Café-au-lait spots

b) Mongolian spots

28
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Which rash is caused by prolonged exposure to wet diapers?
a) Prickly heat
b) Diaper rash
c) Cradle cap
d) Roseola

b) Diaper rash

29
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An infant presents with soft, raised, red vascular lesions. These are:
a) Port-wine stains
b) Hemangiomas
c) Mongolian spots
d) Milia

b – Hemangiomas = soft, raised, red lesions.

30
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Cradle cap is another term for:
a) Seborrheic dermatitis
b) Atopic dermatitis
c) Contact dermatitis
d) Heat rash

a – Cradle cap = seborrheic dermatitis.

31
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Which condition results from blocked sweat ducts in infants?
a) Cradle cap
b) Prickly heat
c) Hemangioma
d) Nevus flammeus

b – Prickly heat = blocked sweat ducts.

32
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Congenital nevi are clinically important because they:
a) Always regress
b) Can transform into melanoma
c) Cause systemic illness
d) Spread via contact

b – Congenital nevi may transform into melanoma.

33
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High fever followed by rash is typical of:
a) Rubella
b) Roseola
c) Varicella
d) Scarlet fever

b – Roseola = high fever → rash after fever resolves.

34
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Rubella is most dangerous for:
a) Elderly adults
b) Pregnant women
c) Infants under 1 year
d) Adolescents

b – Rubella is dangerous for pregnant women (congenital defects).

35
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Which exanthem begins with Koplik spots?
a) Rubella
b) Rubeola
c) Roseola
d) Varicella

b – Rubeola (measles) = Koplik spots.

36
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Chickenpox is caused by which virus?
a) Rubella virus
b) Measles virus
c) Varicella-zoster virus
d) Coxsackievirus

c – Varicella-zoster virus = chickenpox.

37
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Which childhood infection presents with sandpaper rash and strawberry tongue?
a) Roseola
b) Scarlet fever
c) Rubella
d) Rubeola

b – Scarlet fever = sandpaper rash + strawberry tongue.

38
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Which condition presents with vesicular lesions in crops that crust over at different stages?
a) Varicella
b) Rubella
c) Roseola
d) Scarlet fever

a – Varicella lesions = “dew drops” in crops, different stages.

39
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Which disease is associated with congenital defects if mother is infected during pregnancy?
a) Varicella
b) Rubella
c) Roseola
d) Rubeola

b – Rubella → congenital rubella syndrome.

40
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Which illness presents with cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, and photophobia before rash?
a) Rubella
b) Varicella
c) Rubeola
d) Scarlet fever

c – Rubeola = 3 C’s (cough, coryza, conjunctivitis) + photophobia.

41
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Loss of melanocytes, Langerhans cells, and Merkel cells is associated with:
a) Normal aging
b) Actinic keratosis
c) Seborrheic keratosis
d) Melanoma

a – Normal aging → ↓ melanocytes, Langerhans, Merkel cells.

42
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Which normal aging change contributes to increased skin fragility?
a) Thickened epidermis
b) Thinning of dermal layers
c) Hyperpigmentation
d) Increased sweat glands

b – Dermal thinning increases fragility.

43
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Multiple soft, flesh-colored growths on the elderly are most likely:
a) Lentigines
b) Keratoses
c) Skin tags
d) Melanoma

c – Skin tags = soft, benign outgrowths.

44
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Thickened, rough, scaly lesions on sun-exposed skin in the elderly suggest:
a) Actinic keratosis
b) Basal cell carcinoma
c) Melanoma
d) Skin tags

a – Actinic keratosis = rough/scaly on sun-exposed skin.

45
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Which pigmented lesions are benign but increase with age and sun exposure?
a) Melanomas
b) Lentigines
c) Actinic keratosis
d) Hemangiomas

b – Lentigines = benign pigmented “age spots.”

46
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Which vascular lesion appears as dilated small blood vessels on the skin surface?
a) Venous lake
b) Angioma
c) Telangiectasia
d) Hemangioma

c – Telangiectasia = dilated capillaries.

47
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Venous lakes are most often seen in:
a) Infants
b) Young adults
c) Elderly adults
d) Adolescents

c – Venous lakes are common in elderly.

48
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Actinic keratosis is clinically significant because it may progress to:
a) Melanoma
b) Basal cell carcinoma
c) Squamous cell carcinoma
d) Lentigines

  • c – Actinic keratosis may progress to SCC.

49
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A common benign lesion in older adults that appears “stuck-on” is:
a) Seborrheic keratosis
b) Actinic keratosis
c) Lentigines
d) Melanoma

a – Seborrheic keratosis = “stuck-on” lesion.

50
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  1. Thinning of dermal and epidermal layers with ↓ elasticity predisposes elderly patients to:
    a) Wrinkles and fragile skin tears
    b) Hyperpigmented patches
    c) Acne and oiliness
    d) Rapid wound healing

a – Aging skin → fragile, wrinkles, skin tears.