A&P Test 5

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Nervous tissue and CNS PNS ANS SS

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1
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Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes?

A) support and brace neurons

B) anchor neurons to blood vessels

C) guide the migration of young neurons, synapse formation, and helping to determine

capillary permeability

D) control the chemical environment around neurons

E) provide the defense for the CNS

E

2
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Which of the choices below describes the ANS?

A) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac

muscle, and glands

B) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles

C) sensory neurons that convey information from somatic receptors in the head, body

wall, and limbs and from receptors from the special senses of vision, hearing, taste, and

smell to the CNS

D) sensory and motor neurons that supply the digestive tract

A

3
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What are ciliated CNS neuroglia that play an active role in moving the cerebrospinal

fluid called?

A) ependymal cells

B) Schwann cells

C) oligodendrocytes

D) astrocytes

A

4
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What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus?

A) origin of the stimulus

B) type of stimulus receptor

C) frequency of action potentials

D) size of action potentials

C

5
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Bipolar neurons are commonly ________.

A) motor neurons

B) called neuroglial cells

C) found in ganglia

D) found in the retina of the eye

D

6
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Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons

innervating skeletal muscle?

A) cholinesterase

B) norepinephrine

C) acetylcholine

D) gamma aminobutyric acid

C

7
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Which of the following describes the nervous system integrative function?

A) senses changes in the environment

B) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions

C) responds to stimuli by gland secretion or muscle contraction

B

8
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The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus

is the ________.

A) resting period

B) repolarization

C) depolarization

D) absolute refractory period

D

9
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Which of the following is not characteristic of neurons?

A) They conduct impulses.

B) They have extreme longevity.

C) They are mitotic.

D) They have an exceptionally high metabolic rate.

C

10
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The part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body is called a(n) ________.

A) axon

B) dendrite

C) neurolemma

D) Schwann cell

A

11
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Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and

participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials?

A) mechanically gated channel

B) voltage-gated channel

C) leakage channel

D) ligand-gated channel

B

12
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An impulse from one nerve cell is communicated to another nerve cell via the ________.

A) cell body

B) synapse

C) receptor

D) effector

B

13
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What is the role of acetylcholinesterase?

A) act as a transmitting agent

B) amplify or enhance the effect of ACh

C) destroy ACh a brief period after its release by the axon endings

D) stimulate the production of acetylcholine

C

14
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Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system?

A) innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract

B) innervation of cardiac muscle

C) innervation of glands

D) innervation of skeletal muscle

D

15
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Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called ________.

A) nuclei

B) nerves

C) ganglia

D) tracts

C

16
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The term central nervous system refers to the ________.

A) peripheral and spinal nerves

B) brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves

C) brain and spinal cord

D) spinal cord and spinal nerves

C

17
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The substance released at axon terminals to propagate a nervous impulse is called

a(n) ________.

A) ion

B) cholinesterase

C) neurotransmitter

D) biogenic amine

C

18
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A neuron that has as its primary function the job of connecting other neurons is called

a(n) ________.

A) efferent neuron

B) afferent neuron

C) association neuron

D) glial cell

C

19
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Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________.

A) the myelin sheath

B) large nerve fibers

C) diphasic impulses

D) erratic transmission of nerve impulses

A

20
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Which of the following is not a chemical class of neurotransmitters?

A) acetycholine

B) amino acid

C) biogenic amine

D) ATP and other purines

E) nucleic acid

E

21
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Which of the following is false or incorrect?

A) An excitatory postsynaptic potential occurs if the excitatory effect is greater than the

inhibitory effect but less than threshold.

B) A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal.

C) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential occurs if the inhibitory effect is greater than the

excitatory, causing hyperpolarization of the membrane.

B

22
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Select the correct statement regarding synapses.

A) Cells with gap junctions use chemical synapses.

B) The release of neurotransmitter molecules gives cells the property of being electrically

coupled.

C) Neurotransmitter receptors are located on the axons terminals of cells.

D) The synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted directly from one

neuron to another.

D

23
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Which of the following correctly describes a graded potential?

A) long distance signaling

B) amplitude of various sizes

C) voltage stimulus to initiate

D) voltage regulated repolarization

B

24
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Neuroglia that control the chemical environment around neurons by buffering

potassium and recapturing neurotransmitters are ________.

A) astrocytes

B) oligodendrocytes

C) microglia

D) Schwann cells

A

25
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Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________.

A) ependymal cells

B) microglia

C) oligodendrocytes

D) astrocytes

C

26
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Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which cellular gates open?

A) sodium

B) chloride

C) calcium

D) potassium

D

27
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Nerve cell adhesion molecules (N-CAMs) ________.

A) release nerve growth factor

B) are found on "pathfinder" neurons

C) are crucial in the production of neurotransmitters

D) are crucial for the development of neural connections

D

28
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An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with ________.

A) a change in sodium ion permeability

B) hyperpolarization

C) opening of voltage-regulated channels

D) lowering the threshold for an action potential to occur

B

29
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Which of the following will occur when an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)

is being generated on the dendritic membrane?

A) Specific sodium gates will open.

B) Specific potassium gates will open.

C) Sodium gates will open first, then close as potassium gates open.

D) A single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium.

D

30
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When a sensory neuron is excited by some form of energy, the resulting graded potential is called a(n) ________.

A) postsynaptic potential

B) excitatory potential

C) action potential

D) generator potential

D

31
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Which of the following is not true of graded potentials?

A) They are short-lived.

B) They can form on receptor endings.

C) They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point.

D) They can be called postsynaptic potentials.

C

32
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Which of the following is true about the movement of ions across excitable living

membranes?

A) Ions always move actively across membranes through leakage channels.

B) Ions always move passively across membranes.

C) Sodium gates in the membrane can open in response to electrical potential changes.

D) Ions always move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower

concentration

C

33
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A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until ________.

A) the membrane potential has been reestablished

B) the Na ions have been pumped back into the cell

C) proteins have been resynthesized

D) all sodium gates are closed

A

34
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In what way does the interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting (nonconducting)

neuron differ from the external environment? The interior is ________.

A) positively charged and contains less sodium

B) negatively charged and contains less sodium

C) negatively charged and contains more sodium

D) positively charged and contains more sodium

B

35
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If a motor neuron in the body were stimulated by an electrode placed about midpoint

along the length of the axon ________.

A) the impulse would move to the axon terminal only

B) muscle contraction would occur

C) the impulse would spread bidirectionally

D) the impulse would move to the axon terminal only, and the muscle contraction would

occur

C

36
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Which of the following neurotransmitters inhibits pain and is mimicked by morphine,

heroin, and methadone?

A) acetylcholine

B) endorphin

C) serotonin

D) nitric oxide

B

37
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Which of the following describes the excitatory postsynaptic potential?

A) short distance hyperpolarization

B) short distance depolarization

C) opens K+ or Cl- channels

D) moves membrane potential away from threshold

B

38
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The arbor vitae refers to ________.

A) cerebellar gray matter

B) cerebellar white matter

C) the pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum

D) flocculonodular nodes

B

39
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The brain stem consists of the ________.

A) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla

B) midbrain, medulla, and pons

C) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain

D) midbrain only

B

40
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The primary auditory cortex is located in the ________.

A) prefrontal lobe

B) frontal lobe

C) temporal lobe

D) parietal lobe

C

41
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What cells line the ventricles of the brain?

A) ependymal cells

B) neurons

C) epithelial cells

D) astrocytes

A

42
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The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?

A) arachnoid and epidura

B) arachnoid and pia

C) arachnoid and dura

D) dura and epidura

B

43
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The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the

________.

A) pons

B) medulla

C) midbrain

D) cerebrum

B

44
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Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in ________.

A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord

B) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord

C) the thalamus

D) sympathetic ganglia

A

45
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Which fissure separates the cerebral hemispheres?

A) central fissure

B) longitudinal fissure

C) parieto-occipital fissure

D) lateral fissure

B

46
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Which of the following best describes the cerebrum?

A) motor command center

B) visceral command center

C) executive suite

D) decussation center

C

47
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A shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called a ________.

A) sulcus

B) fissure

C) gyrus

D) furrow

A

48
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Which of the following generalizations does not describe the cerebral cortex?

A) The cerebral cortex contains three kinds of functional areas.

B) Each hemisphere is chiefly concerned with sensory and motor functions of the contralateral

side of the body.

C) The hemispheres are exactly equal in function.

D) No functional area of the cortex works alone.

C

49
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If the caudal portion of the neural tube failed to develop properly the ________.

A) spinal cord may be affected

B) cranial nerves would not form

C) hindbrain would not be present

D) telencephalon would cease development

A

50
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The central sulcus separates which lobes?

A) frontal from parietal

B) parietal from occipital

C) temporal from parietal

D) frontal from temporal

A

51
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Which of these would you not find in the cerebral cortex?

A) cell bodies

B) dendrites

C) unmyelinated axons

D) fiber tracts

D

52
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Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called ________.

A) gyri

B) sulci

C) fissures

D) gangli

A

53
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Which part of the cerebral cortex is involved in intellect, cognition, recall, and personality?

A) prefrontal cortex

B) posterior association area

C) limbic association area

D) combined primary somatosensory cortex and somatosensory association cortex

A

54
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The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________.

A) metabolic waste such as urea

B) nutrients such as glucose

C) alcohol

D) anesthetics

A

55
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The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the

cerebral cortex is the ________.

A) thalamus

B) reticular formation

C) pyramids

D) limbic system

B

56
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Which of the following would you not find in normal cerebrospinal fluid?

A) glucose

B) red blood cells

C) potassium

D) protein

B

57
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Which of the following is not a function of the CSF?

A) reduction of brain weight

B) protection from blows

C) nourishment of the brain

D) initiation of some nerve impulses

D

58
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Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following except ________.

A) pathologic sleep

B) loss of body temperature control

C) production of excessive quantities of urine

D) loss of proprioception

D

59
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The patellar "knee jerk" reflex is an example of a(n) ________.

A) extensor thrust reflex

B) stress reflex

C) crossed-extensor reflex

D) stretch reflex

D

60
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Which of the following is not a way that sensory receptors are classified?

A) type of stimulus detected

B) location in the body

C) structural complexity

D) sensitivity to a stimulus

D

61
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Which of the following is not a main level of neural integration in the somatosensory system?

A) receptor

B) circuit

C) segmental

D) perceptual

C

62
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Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order):

A) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords

B) roots, divisions, cords, and trunks

C) divisions, roots, trunks, and cords

D) trunks, divisions, cords, and roots

A

63
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Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________.

A) lumbar plexus

B) femoral plexus

C) sacral plexus

D) thoracic plexus

C

64
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Inborn or intrinsic reflexes are ________.

A) rapid, predictable, and can be learned responses

B) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior

C) autonomic only

D) always mediated by the brain

B

65
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Which of the following is not an aspect of sensory perception?

A) magnitude estimation

B) spatial discrimination

C) feature abstraction

D) visceral identification

E) pattern recognition

D

66
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A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is

called a ________.

A) tendon reflex

B) flexor reflex

C) crossed-extensor reflex

D) plantar reflex

A

67
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Pressure, pain, and temperature receptors in the skin are ________.

A) interoceptors

B) exteroceptors

C) proprioceptors

D) mechanoreceptors

B

68
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Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by ________.

A) interoceptors

B) photoreceptors

C) nociceptors

D) proprioceptors

C

69
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Which receptors adapt most slowly?

A) smell receptors

B) pressure receptors

C) nociceptors

D) touch receptors

B

70
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Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________.

A) afferent nerves

B) efferent nerves

C) motor nerves

D) mixed nerves

A

71
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After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________.

A) Wallerian cells

B) Schwann cells

C) dendrites

D) Golgi organs

B

72
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All processing at the circuit level going up to the perceptual level must synapse in the

________.

A) pons

B) thalamus

C) reticular formation

D) medulla

B

73
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Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc?

A) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor

B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector

C) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor

D) receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector

B

74
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Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all except which of

the following?

A) oculomotor

B) olfactory

C) trigeminal

D) facial

B

75
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Transduction refers to conversion of ________.

A) presynaptic nerve impulses to postsynaptic nerve impulses

B) stimulus energy into energy of a graded potential

C) receptor energy to stimulus energy

D) afferent impulses to efferent impulses

B

76
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If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region

that nerve supplies?

A) complete loss of sensation

B) a complete loss of voluntary movement

C) loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control

D) a complete loss of sensation and movement

B

77
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The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ________.

A) parasympathetic innervation

B) sympathetic stimulation

C) vagus nerve activity

D) neurosecretory substances

B

78
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Which of the following does not describe the ANS?

A) a system of motor neurons that innervates smooth and cardiac muscle and glands

B) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells

C) involuntary nervous system

D) general visceral motor system

B

79
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Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________.

A) sympathetic nervous system

B) cerebrum

C) parasympathetic nervous system

D) somatic nervous system

A

80
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The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following except ________.

A) their effectors

B) their efferent pathways

C) to some degree in target responses to their neurotransmitters

D) all of the neurotransmitters

D

81
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Where would you not find a cholinergeric nicotinic receptor?

A) all parasympathetic target organs

B) all postganglionic neurons

C) adrenal medulla hormone producing cells

D) skeletal muscle motor end plates

A

82
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Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all except ________.

A) constriction of most blood vessels

B) dilation of the vessels serving the skeletal muscles

C) increase of heart rate and force

D) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera

D

83
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Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve number ________.

A) V

B) VII

C) X

D) XII

C

84
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The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________.

A) parasympathetic division

B) sympathetic division

C) somatic division

D) peripheral nervous system

A

85
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Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the

________.

A) medulla

B) cerebellum

C) hypothalamus

D) thalamus

C

86
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Which of these effectors is not directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system?

A) smooth muscle

B) cardiac muscle

C) skeletal muscle

D) most glands

C

87
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Which of the following is not a result of parasympathetic stimulation?

A) salivation

B) dilation of the pupils

C) increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera

D) elimination of urine

B

88
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Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebra?

A) second cervical

B) third lumbar

C) first coccyx

D) first thoracic

D

89
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Autonomic ganglia contain ________.

A) an outer connective tissue capsule around the cell bodies of preganglionic motor neurons

B) synapses between postganglionic fibers and their effectors

C) the cell bodies of motor neurons

D) both somatic afferent and efferent neurons

C

90
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Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________.

A) visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons

B) somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess

C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons

D) visceral arcs do not use integration centers

C

91
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Erection of the penis or clitoris ________.

A) is primarily under sympathetic control

B) is primarily under parasympathetic control

C) is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input

D) depends very little on autonomic activation

B

92
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Which of the following adrenergic neurotransmitter receptors plays the major role in heart

activity?

A) beta 1

B) beta 2

C) beta 3

D) alpha 1

A

93
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Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________.

A) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure

B) increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure

C) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure

D) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure

C

94
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Which is a uniquely sympathetic function?

A) regulation of pupil size

B) regulation of cardiac rate

C) regulation of respiratory rate

D) regulation of body temperature

D

95
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What is the main function of the rods in the eye?

A) depth perception

B) color vision

C) vision in dim light

D) accommodation for near vision

C

96
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What structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye?

A) aqueous humor

B) lens

C) cornea

D) iris

D

97
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Receptors for hearing are located in the ________.

A) cochlea

B) semicircular canals

C) tympanic membrane

D) vestibule

A

98
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Which of the follow types of neurons are replaced throughout adult life?

A) olfactory receptor cells

B) retinal bipolar cells

C) retinal ganglion cells

D) auditory outer and inner hair cells

A

99
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Bitter taste is elicited by ________.

A) hydrogen ions

B) alkaloids

C) acids

D) metal ions

B

100
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Seventy percent of all sensory receptors are located in the ________.

A) eye

B) ears

C) skin

D) nose

A