Studied by 16 people
What is the zone responsible for delivering air?
a. Tracheal zone
b. Respiratory zone
c. Oxygenation zone
d. Conducting zone
Conducting zone
What is the zone responsible for gas exchange with the blood?
a. Tracheal zone
b. Respiratory zone
c. Oxygenation zone
d. Conducting zone
Respiratory zone
Where does voluntary control of breathing originate?
a. Cerebral cortex
b. Medulla oblongata
c. Pons
d. B&C
Cerebral cortex
Where does involuntary control of breathing originate?
a. Cerebral cortex
b. Medulla oblongata
c. Pons
d. B&C
B&C
What nerve innervates the diaphragm?
a. Spinal nerves (T1-T11)
b. Phrenic nerve (C3-C4)
c. Spinal nerves (T4-T11)
d. Phrenic nerve (C3-C5)
Phrenic nerve (C3-C5)
What is surfactant important for?
a. Reduce friction between the alveoli
b. Transport oxygen and CO2
c. Keep alveoli open for gas exchange
d. Allow for the transport of RBCs
Keep alveoli open for gas exchange
Which of the following is FALSE about chest XRs?
a. The routine study for lung disease
b. Screening test for lung cancer
c. Allows for the visualization of PNA
d. Not as sensitive as a CT
Screening test for lung cancer
What form of imaging is the "gold standard" for diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism?
a. CT pulmonary angiogram
b. Chest CT without contrast
c. Chest XR
d. Chest US
CT pulmonary angiogram
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. V/Q mismatch is not a normal variant
b. The V/Q ratio will be high in the apex due to a higher perfusion
c. The V/Q ratio will be low in the base due to a lower perfusion
d. V/Q shunting is not a normal variant
V/Q shunting is not a normal variant
What is the normal O2 sat range on room air?
a. 95-100%
b. 96-100%
c. 97-100%
d. 94-100%
96-100%
What O2 sat warrants the need for supplemental oxygen?
a. < 88%
b. < 90%
c. < 92%
d. < 94%
< 88%
Which of the following is NOT indicative of transudative pleural fluid?
a. CHF
b. Hypoalbuminemia
c. Infection
d. Cirrhosis
Infection
Which of the following is NOT indicative of exudative pleural fluid?
a. Infection
b. Nephrotic syndrome
c. Inflammation
d. Hemorrhage
Nephrotic syndrome
What is an indication for a needle decompression?
a. Pneumonia
b. Tension pneumothorax
c. COPD
d. CHF
Tension pneumothorax
Which of the following has the highest FiO2?
a. Non-rebreather
b. Face mask
c. High flow nasal cannula
d. Nasal cannula
High flow nasal cannula
T/F: In obstructive diseases, you would expect to get a decrease in FEV1
True
T/F: In restrictive diseases, you would expect to get a decrease in FEV1
False
T/F: In obstructive diseases, you would expect to get a decrease in RV
False
T/F: In obstructive diseases, you would expect to get a decrease in TLC
True
What is the normal pH range?
a. 7.32-7.42
b. 7.35-7.45
c. 7.38-7.44
d. 7.30-7.40
7.38-7.44
What is sensitive to arterial pO2?
a. Carotid bodies
b. Medulla
c. Aortic arch
d. A&C
A&C
Where are the chemoreceptors sensitive to pCO2 and pH located?
a. Cerebral cortex
b. Carotid bodies
c. Aortic arch
d. Medulla
Medulla
Which of the following is NOT a possible cause for respiratory acidosis?
a. Fever
b. Obesity
c. Spinal cord injury
d. Narcotics
Fever
Which of the following is NOT a possible cause for respiratory alkalosis?
a. CHF
b. CNS tumor
c. Sepsis
d. Anxiety
CNS tumor
Which of the following is NOT a possible cause for metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap?
a. Iron
b. Ethanol
c. Methanol
d. Spironolactone
Spironolactone
Which of the following is NOT a possible cause for metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap?
a. Uremia
b. Acetazolamide
c. Diarrhea
d. Hyperalimentation
Uremia
T/F: Lactic acidosis is caused by conditions with impaired tissue perfusion
True
Which of the following does NOT cause lactic acidosis?
a. Hypotension
b. Hypoxia
c. Anemia
d. None of the above
None of the above
T/F: Antibiotics are recommended for treatment of URIs
False
Which of the following types of PNA is most commonly associated with hotel AC systems?
a. Mycoplasma
b. Legionella
c. Streptococcus
d. Klebsiella
Legionella
Which of the following types of PNA is most commonly seen in college aged students?
a. Mycoplasma
b. Legionella
c. Streptococcus
d. Klebsiella
Mycoplasma
Which of the following types of PNA is has an associated symptom of currant jelly sputum?
a. Mycoplasma
b. Legionella
c. Streptococcus
d. Klebsiella
Klebsiella
Which of the following types of PNA is has an associated symptom of rust colored sputum?
a. Mycoplasma
b. Legionella
c. Streptococcus
d. Klebsiella
Streptococcus
Which of the following types of PNA is has an associated symptom of hyponatremia and diarrhea?
a. Mycoplasma
b. Legionella
c. Streptococcus
d. Klebsiella
Legionella
Which of the following types of PNA is has an associated symptom of bullous myringitis (severe ear pain)?
a. Mycoplasma
b. Legionella
c. Streptococcus
d. Klebsiella
Mycoplasma
Which of the following types of PNA is has an associated symptom of hoarseness?
a. Mycoplasma
b. Chlamydia
c. Streptococcus
d. Klebsiella
Chlamydia
Which of the following types of PNA is most commonly associated with alcoholics?
a. Mycoplasma
b. Legionella
c. Streptococcus
d. Klebsiella
Klebsiella
Which of the following types of PNA is most commonly associated with patients with COPD?
a. H. Influenza
b. Legionella
c. Streptococcus
d. Klebsiella
H. Influenza
Which of the following types of PNA is most commonly associated with patients with cystic fibrosis?
a. Mycoplasma
b. Pseudomonas
c. Streptococcus
d. Klebsiella
Pseudomonas
Which of the following types of PNA is most commonly seen in patients < 1 y/o?
a. Parainfluenza
b. Streptococcus
c. RSV
d. Pseudomonas
RSV
Which of the following types of PNA is most commonly seen in patients > 2 y/o?
a. Parainfluenza
b. Streptococcus
c. RSV
d. Pseudomonas
Parainfluenza
What is the 1st line outpatient treatment for typical and atypical CAP?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Azithromycin
c. Doxycycline
d. Augmentin
Azithromycin
What is the treatment for typical CAP in pediatric patients?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Azithromycin
c. Doxycycline
d. Augmentin
Amoxicillin
What is the treatment for atypical CAP in pediatric patients?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Azithromycin
c. Doxycycline
d. Augmentin
Azithromycin
What is the treatment for typical and atypical CAP if comorbidities or increased resistance to macrolides exists?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Levofloxacin
d. Doxycycline
Levofloxacin
What is the first line treatment for inpatient (non-ICU) CAP?
a. Cefdinir or Ceftaroline & Azithromycin
b. Cephalexin or Ceftaroline & Azithromycin
c. Ceftriaxone or Ceftaroline & Azithromycin
d. Cephalexin or Ceftaroline & Amoxicillin
Ceftriaxone or Ceftaroline & Azithromycin
What is the first line treatment for inpatient (non-ICU) CAP if you suspect MRSA?
a. Cefdinir or Ceftaroline & Azithromycin & Clindamycin
b. Cephalexin or Ceftaroline & Azithromycin & Vancomycin
c. Ceftriaxone or Ceftaroline & Azithromycin & Vancomycin
d. Cephalexin or Ceftaroline & Amoxicillin & Linezolid
Ceftriaxone or Ceftaroline & Azithromycin & Vancomycin
What is the most common cause of HIV associated pneumonia?
a. H. influenzae
b. S. pneumoniae
c. P. aeruginosa
d. Pneumocystic jirovecii
Pneumocystic jirovecii
What is a unique symptom of anaerobic pneumonia and lung abscesses?
a. Hemoptysis
b. Foul smelling purulent sputum
c. Currant jelly sputum
d. Weight gain
Foul smelling purulent sputum
What is the treatment of anaerobic pneumonia and lung abscesses (patient has NKDA)?
a. Beta-lactam/Beta-lactamase inhibitor
b. Cephalosporin
c. Macrolide
d. Clindamycin
Beta-lactam/Beta-lactamase inhibitor
What is the treatment of anaerobic pneumonia and lung abscesses (patient has allergy to beta lactams)?
a. Penicillin
b. Cephalosporin
c. Macrolide
d. Clindamycin
Clindamycin
What is the most common cause of lower respiratory tract infections in children < 1 y/o?
a. H. influenza
b. RSV
c. S. pneumonia
d. Pseudomonas
RSV
What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis?
a. Adenovirus
b. Parainfluenza
c. Rhinovirus
d. RSV
RSV
What is the most common cause of epiglottitis in children?
a. H. influenza type a
b. H. influenza type b
c. S. pneumoniae
d. Pseudomonas
H. influenza type b
What is the most common cause of epiglottitis in adults?
a. H. influenza type a
b. H. influenza type b
c. S. pneumoniae
d. Pseudomonas
S. pneumoniae
What is the most common cause of epiglottitis in immunocompromised patients?
a. H. influenza type a
b. H. influenza type b
c. S. pneumoniae
d. Pseudomonas
Pseudomonas
What is NOT a presenting symptom of epiglottitis?
a. Cough
b. Drooling
c. Muffled voice
d. Tripod posture
Cough
What is the CXR finding for epiglottitis?
Thumb print sign
What stage of pertussis is the most infectious?
a. Catarrhal
b. Paroxysmal
c. Convalescent
Catarrhal
T/F: If labs were drawn on a patient with pertussis, there would be leukocytosis with lymphocytosis
True
What is the first line treatment for pertussis?
a. Penicillin
b. Beta-lactam/Beta-lactamase inhibitor
c. Tetracyclines
d. Macrolides
Macrolides
What is the CXR finding for croup?
Steeple sign
What disease state is characterized by a barking (seal like) cough and inspiratory stridor worse at night?
a. RSV
b. Pneumoniae
c. Croup
d. Epiglottitis
Croup
What is the gold standard treatment for croup?
a. Racemic epinephrine
b. Macrolides
c. Amoxicillin
d. Intubation
Racemic epinepherine
What should you observe when measuring a PPD test?
a. Erythema
b. Induration
Induration
What TB drug has a side effect of orange body fluids?
a. INH
b. Rifampin
c. Ethambutol
d. Pyrazinamide
Rifampin
What TB drug has a side effect of optic neuropathy?
a. INH
b. Rifampin
c. Ethambutol
d. Pyrazinamide
INH
What TB drug has a side effect of red-green vision loss?
a. INH
b. Rifampin
c. Ethambutol
d. Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
What TB drug has a side effect of photosensitive dermatitis?
a. INH
b. Rifampin
c. Ethambutol
d. Pyrazinamide
Pyrazinamide
What mycotic lung disease originates from the midwest and southeast regions?
a. Histoplasmosis
b. Coccidiodomycosis
c. Blastomycosis
d. Aspergillosis
Histoplasmosis
What mycotic lung disease is due to inhalation of contaminated soil?
a. Histoplasmosis
b. Coccidiodomycosis
c. Blastomycosis
d. Aspergillosis
Histoplasmosis
What is the first line treatment for histoplasmosis?
a. Amphotericin B
b. Clindamycin
c. Fluconazole
d. Itraconazole
Itraconazole
What mycotic lung disease is related to valleys (ie. San Joaquin Valley)?
a. Histoplasmosis
b. Coccidiodomycosis
c. Blastomycosis
d. Aspergillosis
Coccidiodomycosis
What mycotic lung disease has an associated symptom of erythema nodosum?
a. Histoplasmosis
b. Coccidiodomycosis
c. Blastomycosis
d. Aspergillosis
Coccidiomycosis
What mycotic lung disease originates from areas with the Great Lakes and rivers?
a. Histoplasmosis
b. Coccidiodomycosis
c. Blastomycosis
d. Aspergillosis
Blastomycosis
What mycotic lung disease can have an associated symptom of verrucous lesiosn?
a. Histoplasmosis
b. Coccidiodomycosis
c. Blastomycosis
d. Aspergillosis
Blastomycosis
What is the first line treatment for mild/moderate blastomycosis?
a. Amphotericin B
b. Voriconazole
c. Fluconazole
d. Itraconazole
Itraconazole
What is the first line treatment for moderately severe/severe blastomycosis?
a. Amphotericin B
b. Voriconazole
c. Fluconazole
d. Itraconazole
Amphotericin B
What is the first line treatment for CNS blastomycosis?
a. Amphotericin B
b. Voriconazole
c. Fluconazole
d. Itraconazole
Voriconazole
What is the defining feature of asthma?
a. Mucous plugging
b. Airway collapse
c. Bronchial/Airway hyperresponsiveness
d. Bronchial/Airway hyporesponsiveness
Bronchial/Airway hyperresponsiveness
What is the effect of asthma of FEV1?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
Decrease
What is the effect of asthma of FVC?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
Decrease
What is the effect of asthma of RV?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
Increase
What is the effect of asthma of TLC?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
Increase
What is the effect of asthma of FRC?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
Increase
What stage of asthma would have an FEV1 of 60-80%?
a. Intermittent
b. Mild persistent
c. Moderate persistent
d. Severe persistent
Moderate persistent
What stage of asthma would have an FEV1 of <60%?
a. Intermittent
b. Mild persistent
c. Moderate persistent
d. Severe persistent
Severe persistent
What stage of asthma would have a normal FEV1?
a. Intermittent
b. Mild persistent
c. Moderate persistent
d. A&B
A&B
What SABA is used as an emergency inhaler and can be used for EIA?
a. Albuterol
b. Levalbuterol
Levalbuterol
What LABA can be used for an acute exacerbation?
a. Formoterol
b. Salmeterol
Formoterol
What is an important side effect of ICS use?
a. Sore throat
b. Oral thrush
c. Hairy tongue
d. Lip swellin
Oral thrush
What is a black box side effect of leukotriene receptor antagonists?
a. Mood disorders
b. Strokes
c. MI
d. HTN
Mood disorders
What drug class works well in those that have aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease?
a. LABA
b. LAMA
c. SABA
d. Leukotriene receptor antagonists
Leukotriene receptor antagonists
T/F: Slow onset asthma exacerbations are more common in males
False
T/F: Fast onset asthma exacerbations are more common in males
True
What can trigger a slow onset asthma exacerbation?
a. Exercise
b. URI
c. Allergens
d. Stress
URI
What is a unique symptom of asthma exacerbations?
a. Abdominal pain
b. Hemoptysis
c. Silent chest
d. Vomiting
Silent chest
T/F: All COPD is caused by prolonged exposure to harmful particles or gases
False
What subtype of emphysema is associated with smoking/toxic gas exposure?
a. Centriacinar
b. Panacinar
c. Paraseptal
Centriacinar
What subtype of emphysema is associated with an alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?
a. Centriacinar
b. Panacinar
c. Paraseptal
Panacinar
Note 
Flashcard (67)