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Q: What are the three main nutrients in food?
A: Carbohydrates (e.g., starch), proteins, lipids (fats)
Q: Why must large food molecules be digested?
A: They are too large to be absorbed into the bloodstream, so enzymes break them into small molecules.
Q: What happens in the mouth during digestion?
A: Food is chewed, and enzymes in saliva start digesting starch into smaller sugars.
Q: What is the role of the liver in digestion?
A: Produces bile, which emulsifies lipids (speeds up digestion) and neutralizes stomach acid.
Q: What happens in the large intestine?
A: Water is absorbed into the bloodstream and feces are formed for excretion.
Q: What is a substrate?
A: The molecule that an enzyme acts on and breaks down.
Q: What does it mean that enzymes are specific?
A: Each enzyme only works on one substrate that fits perfectly into its active site (lock and key theory).
: Which enzyme breaks down proteins, and where is it found?
A: Proteases; found in the stomach, pancreatic fluid, and small intestine
Q: What are proteins broken down into by proteases?
A: Amino acids, which are absorbed into the bloodstream and used to make new proteins in the body.
Q: Which enzyme breaks down starch, and where is it found?
A: Amylase (a carbohydrase); found in saliva and pancreatic fluid.
Q: What is starch broken down into by amylase?
A: Simple sugars, like glucose.
Q: Which enzyme breaks down lipids, and where is it found?
A: Lipase; found in pancreatic fluid and the small intestine.
Q: What are lipids broken down into by lipase?
A: Glycerol and fatty acids.
Q: What is the role of bile in digestion?
A: Bile emulsifies large lipid droplets into smaller droplets, increasing surface area for lipase to act and speeding up lipid digestion.
Q: How does bile help lipase in terms of pH?
A: Bile is alkaline and neutralizes stomach acid, creating alkaline conditions in the small intestine that increase the rate of lipid digestion.
What are emzymes
A: Enzymes speed up chemical reactions (they are biology al catalysts).
Q: What is the active site of an enzyme?
A: A groove on the enzyme’s surface where the substrate binds.
Q: What is a substrate?
A: The molecule that an enzyme reacts with and breaks down.
Q: Why are enzymes specific?
: Because only substrates with a complementary shape fit into the active site.
Q: How does increasing temperature affect enzyme activity at first?
: Enzyme activity increases because enzymes and substrates move faster, causing more collisions.
Q: Why does enzyme activity increase with temperature?
A: Higher temperature gives particles more kinetic energy, increasing successful collisions with the active site.
Q: What is the optimum temperature of an enzyme?
A: The temperature at which the enzyme works at its fastest rate.
Q: What is the optimum temperature for most human enzymes?
A: 37°C (body temperature).
: What happens to enzyme activity above the optimum temperature?
A: Activity rapidly decreases to zero because the enzyme becomes denatured.
: What does it mean when an enzyme is denatured?
A: The active site changes shape so the substrate can no longer bind.
Q: How does pH affect enzyme activity?
A: Each enzyme has an optimum pH; activity decreases if conditions are too acidic or too alkaline.
Q: Why does extreme pH stop enzymes from working?
A: The active site denatures and the substrate no longer fits.
: Which enzymes work best at acidic pH?
A: Proteases in the stomach.
Q: What safety precaution must be used when carrying out food tests?
A: Safety goggles must be worn because the chemicals are hazardous.
Q: Why is the food sample ground with distilled water at the start?
A: To dissolve chemicals from the food into a solution that can be tested.
Q: What chemical is used to test for starch?
A: Iodine solution.
Q: What is the positive result for starch?
A: Iodine changes from orange to blue-black.
Q: What does it mean if iodine stays orange?.
A: No starch is present
Q: What chemical is used to test for reducing sugars?
A: Benedict’s solution.
Q: What must be done for the Benedict’s test to work?
A: The solution must be heated in a hot water bath.
Q: What colour change shows a large amount of sugar?
A: Blue → brick red.
Q: What type of sugars does Benedict’s test detect?
A: Reducing sugars (e.g. glucose).
Q: Give an example of a sugar Benedict’s test does NOT detect.
: Sucrose (a non-reducing sugar).
Q: What chemical is used to test for protein?
A: Biuret solution.
Q: What is the positive result for protein?
A: Blue → purple/lilac.
Q: What chemicals are used to test for lipids?
A: Ethanol and water.
Q: What is the positive result for lipids?
A: A white cloudy emulsion forms.
Q: Why is the lipid test solution NOT filtered?
A: Lipids can stick to filter paper.
Q: What safety risk is associated with ethanol?
A: It is highly flammable (no naked flames).
Q: What is the function of the small intestine?
A: To absorb the products of digestion into the bloodstream.
Q: Why is the small intestine very long?
A: It provides a large surface area for absorption.
Q: What structures line the inside of the small intestine?
A: Villi
Q: How do villi help absorption?
A: They massively increase the surface area for absorption.
: What are microvilli?
A: Tiny projections on the surface of villi.
: Why do villi have a good blood supply?
A: To rapidly remove absorbed molecules and maintain a steep concentration gradient.
Q: Why is maintaining a steep concentration gradient important?
A: It increases the rate of diffusion into the blood.
Q: Why do villi have a thin membrane?
A: To provide a short diffusion distance.
Q: How are most digested food molecules absorbed?
A: By diffusion.
Q: How are molecules absorbed if diffusion cannot occur?
A: By active transport.
Q: Give four adaptations of the small intestine for absorption.
A:
Very long
Villi
Microvilli
Good blood supply
Thin membranes (any four)
Q: What type of tissue is the heart mainly made of?
A: Muscle tissue.
Q: What is a single circulatory system?
A: Blood passes through the heart once per complete circuit of the body.
Q: What is a double circulatory system?
A: Blood passes through the heart twice per complete circuit.
Q: What is the advantage of a double circulatory system?
A: Blood travels at higher pressure, delivering oxygen more quickly to cells.
Q: How many chambers does the heart have?
A: Four.
Q: Name the four chambers of the heart.
A:
Left atrium
Right atrium
Left ventricle
Right ventricle
Q: Where are the atria located?
A: At the top of the heart.
Q: What separates the atria from the ventricles?
A: Valves.
Q: What is the function of heart valves?
A: To prevent blood flowing backwards.
Q: Which vessel brings deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart?
A: Vena cava.
Q: Which vessel carries blood from the heart to the lungs?
A: Pulmonary artery.
Q: Which vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?
A: Pulmonary vein.
Q: Which vessel carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the body?
A: Aorta.
Q: What happens when the atria contract?
A: Blood is forced into the ventricles.
Q: What happens when the ventricles contract?
A: Blood is forced out of the heart.
Q: Why is the left ventricle wall thicker than the right?
A: It pumps blood to the whole body at higher pressure.
Q: What are coronary arteries?
A: Blood vessels that supply the heart muscle with oxygenated blood.
Q: Why do heart muscle cells need oxygen?
A: For respiration to release energy for contraction.
Q: Where is the natural pacemaker found?
A: In the right atrium.
Q: What does the pacemaker do?
A: Controls the resting heart rate.
Q: What is an artificial pacemaker?
A: A small electrical device used to correct irregular heart rhythms.
Q: Explain how the heart pumps blood around the body.
A: The atria contract to push blood into the ventricles, then the ventricles contract to force blood out of the heart. Valves prevent backflow, and the left ventricle has a thicker wall to pump blood at high pressure around the body.
Q: What are the four main parts of blood?
A:
Plasma
Red blood cells
White blood cells
Platelets
Q: What is blood plasma?
A: The liquid part of blood that transports cells and dissolved substances.
Q: What does plasma transport?
A: Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, nutrients, hormones, antibodies, carbon dioxide, and urea.
Q: What is the function of red blood cells?
A: To transport oxygen from the lungs to body cells.
Q: What molecule in red blood cells carries oxygen?
A: Haemoglobin.
Q: What is oxyhaemoglobin?
A: Haemoglobin combined with oxygen.
Q: Why do red blood cells not have a nucleus?
A: To provide more space for haemoglobin.
Q: Describe the shape of a red blood cell.
A: A biconcave disc.
Q: Why is the biconcave shape important?
A: It increases surface area so oxygen diffuses in and out quickly.
Q: What is the function of white blood cells?
A: To defend the body against pathogens as part of the immune system.
Q: Give one function of white blood cells.
A: They produce antibodies.
Q: What key feature do white blood cells have?
A: A nucleus.
Q: What are platelets?
A: Tiny fragments of cell
Q: What is the function of platelets?
A: To help the blood clot and prevent excessive bleeding.
Q: Why might a patient be given platelets?
A: To help with blood clotting.
Q: Why must donor blood be the same blood type as the patient’s?
A: To prevent the immune system rejecting the blood.
Q: What could happen if incompatible blood is transfused?
A: The immune system attacks the blood and the patient could die.
Q: What is another risk of blood transfusions?
A: Infection from diseases carried in blood.
Q: Why is the risk of infection low in the UK?
A: Donated blood is carefully screened.
Q: What are cardiovascular diseases (CVDs)?
A: Diseases of the heart and blood vessels.
Q: Are cardiovascular diseases communicable?
A: No, they are non-communicable (not infectious).
Q: What is coronary heart disease?
A: A disease where fatty material builds up inside the coronary arteries.
Q: What is the function of the coronary arteries?
A: To supply oxygenated blood to the heart muscle.