ATPL (Philippines) - Air Law 1

1. Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than:

a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility

b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility

c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility

d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility

2. What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure?

a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed

b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible

c. Maintain your assigned altitude and land at the nearest aerodrome at which there are VMC conditions

d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible

3. For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least:

a. 50 minutes before off-block time

b. 60 minutes before departure

c. 10 minutes before departure

d. 30 minutes before off-block time

b. 60 minutes before departure

4. A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus:

a. 10%

b. 3%

c. 5%

d. 2%

d. 2%

5. What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside controlled airspace unless otherwise directed?

a. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the heading

b. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the estimated position of the aircraft

c. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track

d. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track

b. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the estimated position of the aircraft

6. If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to:

a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace

b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind

c. Ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track

d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace

7. When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance:

a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan

b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance

c. He/she may ask a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance

d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance

8. An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if:

a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures

b. The aircraft receives radar vectors

c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

9. What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace?

a. No flight plan required

b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not

c. Flight plan required but PIC need not notify of any changes

d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not

10. What are the VMC limits for Class B airspace?

a. 8km flight visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface

b. 8km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud

c. 5km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud

d. The same as Class D

d. The same as Class D

11. A precision Approach Procedure is defined as:

a. An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information

b. An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations

c. An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR

d. An approach using bearing, elevation, and, optionally, distance information

c. An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR

12. An instrument approach is made up of a number of segments. How many of them are there?

a. 4

b. 5

c. 3

d. 6

b. 5

13. An aircraft flying over the sea between 4500ft and 9000ft AMSL and outside CAS. To continue under VFR the meteorological conditions must remain:

a. 2000ft horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with visibility of 8km

b. 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with visibility of 5km

c. 1500m horizontally and 1000m vertically from cloud with visibility of 5km

d. Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface with visibility of 5km

b. 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with visibility of 5km

14. A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because:

a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance

b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ability to fly

c. The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome

d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance

15. Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognized as an aircraft in distress?

a. Code 7500

b. Code 7700

c. Code 7000

d. Code 7600

b. Code 7700

16. Which has priority to land?

a. A hospital flight

b. An emergency

c. A military flight

d. A VIP flight

b. An emergency

17. You see a double white cross in a signal square, what does this mean?

a. Glider flying in progress

b. Tow ropes and banners may be dropped

c. Runway unfit for aircraft movement

d. Aerodrome unfit for aircraft movement

a. Glider flying in progress

18. What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach?

a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach

b. Land on the instrument runway

c. Initiate a missed approach

d. Return to the FAF

c. Initiate a missed approach

19. The longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircrafts at the same FL, where there is enough coverage for navigation aids and the preceeding aircraft has a higher true airspeed of 20kts minimum is:

a. 3 minutes

b. 15 minutes

c. 5 minutes

d. 10 minutes

c. 5 minutes

20. The transition from IFR to VFR is done:

a. On the Captain's initiative

b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace

c. If told by ATC

d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

a. On the Captain's initiative

21. Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless:

a. They operate outside controlled airspace

b. If asked by ATC

c. Within controlled airspace

d. They operate a transponder with mode C

b. If asked by ATC

22. Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) cannot be used for flights other than those executed frequently on the same days of the following weeks and:

a. For at least 20 occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days

b. For at least 20 consecutive days

c. For at least 10 occasions or every day over a period of at least 10 consecutive days

d. For at least 20 occasions

c. For at least 10 occasions or every day over a period of at least 10 consecutive days

23. Operationally significant changes to AIP shall be published in accordance with:

a. AIC's

b. AIP Supplements

c. AIRAC procedures

d. Trigger NOTAMS

c. AIRAC procedures

24. An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean?

a. Do not land

b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable

c. Give way to other aircraft

d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable

25. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?

a. Switching on and off three times the landing lights

b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

c. Switching on and off four times the navigation lights

d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

26. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode:

a. Only when directed by ATC

b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC

c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace

d. Regardless of ATC instructions

b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC

27. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL290 is:

a. 500 feet (150m)

b. 2500 feet (750 m)

c. 1000 feet (300m)

d. 2000 feet (600m)

c. 1000 feet (300m)

28. An aircraft is converging from the left. Which light will you see first?

a. Red

b. Green

c. Blue

d. White

b. Green

29. What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR?

a. 1000m

b. 1500m

c. 2000m

d. 3000m

b. 1500m

30. If so equipped, when should an aircraft display the anti-collision light?

a. Only at night in flight, but not on the ground if being towed

b. Whilst taxiing but not whilst being towed

c. Only at night with engines running

d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running

d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running

31. What radius from a terminal VOR is MSA provided?

a. 25nm

b. 10nm

c. 15nm

d. 15km

a. 25nm

32. The loading limitations shall include:

a. All limiting mass and centre of gravity

b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing

c. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position and floor loading

d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centre of gravity

b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing

33. A marshaller crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outward and then moves the arms outwards. What does the signal indicate?

a. Clear to move forward

b. Brakes off

c. Remove chocks

d. Clear to close all engines

c. Remove chocks

34. The transition from IFR to VFR is done:

a. On the Captain's initiative

b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace

c. If told by ATC

d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

a. On the Captain's initiative

35. The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the:

a. Pilot in command

b. Operator

c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace

d. Owner of the aircraft

a. Pilot in command

36. Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the right of way?

a. Aircraft A, regardless of the direction from which B approaches

b. Aircraft B, regardless of the direction from which A approaches

c. Aircraft A, if B is to the right of him

d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

37. When a state renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of its own license, the validity shall:

a. Not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of the license

b. Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license

c. Be at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid

d. Be at the discretion of ICAO

b. Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license

38. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:

a. Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states

b. Aeronautical standards adopted by all states

c. Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes

d. Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention

a. Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states

39. Which of the following is an obligation of being an ICAO contracting state?

a. ICAO must be informed about all new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses

b. ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards detailed in any of the annexes to the Chicago convention

c. ICAO must approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections

d. ICAO must be informed about changes to national regulations

b. ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards detailed in any of the annexes to the Chicago convention

40. You have been intercepted in the airspace of a foreign contracting state. What is the signal for 'clear to proceed' from the intercepting aircraft?

a. Rocking wings

b. Flashing lights

c. Cut across track

d. Breaking turn up and left

d. Breaking turn up and left

41. What is the minimum vertical separation between IFR flights flying in the same direction below FL 290?

a. 500ft

b. 1000ft

c. 2000ft

d. 4000ft

c. 2000ft

42. During a straight departure, the initial track is to be:

a. Within 5° of runway centre-line

b. Within 10 of runway centre-line

c. Within 15° of runway centre-line

d. Within 25° of runway centre-line

c. Within 15° of runway centre-line

43. When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall:

a. Only use the word "wilco"

b. Only read back the code

c. Only use the word "roger"

d. Read back mode and code

d. Read back mode and code

44. Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft?

a. The State

b. The Operator

c. The Commander

d. The Owner

c. The Commander

45. The transition of altitude to flight level and vice versa is made:

a. On the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent

b. At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent

c. At the transition level only

d. At the transition altitude only

b. At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent

46. A type rating is applicable to:

a. An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness

b. An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State

c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation

d. An aircraft that requires additional skills training

c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation

47. If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an aerodrome, what should be entered in Box 16 of the Flight Plan?

a. ZZZZ

b. NNNN

c. A/N

d. A/D XXX

a. ZZZZ

48. When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to:

a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO

b. ICAO only

c. Each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO

49. If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may:

a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance

b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance

c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must comply

d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance

50. The MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation facility at the aerodrome?

a. 20nm

b. 30nm

c. 25nm

d. 15nm

c. 25nm

51. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 137 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?

a. Five

b. Four

c. Three

b. Four

8193

52. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a seating capacity of 188 has 117 passengers on board?

a. Five

b. Four

c. Three

b. Four

8201