UTA BIOL 1442; Final Exam

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200 Terms

1
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What is the primary function of stems?

A) Facilitation of gas exchange

B) Reproduction

C) Maximization of photosynthesis by leaves

D) Water absorption and movement

D) Water absorption and movement

2
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2) When you eat Brussels sprouts, you are eating _____.

A) petioles

B) storage leaves

C) immature flowers

D) large axillary buds

B) storage leaves

3
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Leaf thickness represents a trade-off between _____.

A) water retention and oxygen absorption

B) water retention and carbon dioxide absorption

C) light collection and carbon dioxide absorption

D) light collection and oxygen absorption

B) water retention and carbon dioxide absorption

4
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Trichomes _____.

A) increase water loss from leaves

B) open and close for gas exchange

C) repel or trap insects

D) absorb sunlight, increasing the temperature of leaves

B) open and close for gas exchange

5
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Which of the following have unevenly thickened primary walls that support young, growing

parts of the plant?

A) tracheids and vessel elements

B) collenchyma cells

C) parenchyma cells

D) sclerenchyma cells

B) collenchyma cells

6
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Which of the following are water-conducting cells that are dead at functional maturity?

A) sieve-tube elements

B) parenchyma cells

C) collenchyma cells

D) tracheids and vessel elements

D) tracheids and vessel elements

7
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Plant meristematic cells _____.

A) are undifferentiated cells that produce new cells

B) increase the surface area of dermal tissue by developing root hairs

C) subdivide into three distinct cell types named parenchyma, ground meristem, and

procambium

D) are distributed evenly in all tissues throughout the plant

A) are undifferentiated cells that produce new cells

8
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Cells produced by lateral meristems are known as _____. 8) _____

A) pith

B) dermal and ground tissue

C) lateral tissues

D) secondary tissues

D) secondary tissues

9
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Which of the following is the correct sequence of the zones in the primary growth of a root,

moving from the root cap inward?

A) zone of differentiation, zone of elongation, zone of cell division

B) zone of cell division, zone of differentiation, zone of elongation

C) zone of cell division, zone of elongation, zone of differentiation

D) zone of elongation, zone of cell division, zone of differentiation

C) zone of cell division, zone of elongation, zone of differentiation

10
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A student examining leaf cross sections under a microscope finds many loosely packed cells

with relatively thin cell walls. The cells have numerous chloroplasts. What type of cells are they?

A) sclerenchyma

B) collenchyma

C) endodermis

D) parenchyma

A) sclerenchyma

11
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The polarity of a plant is established when _____.

A) the primary root breaks through the seed coat

B) the shoot first breaks through the soil into the light as the seed germinates

C) cotyledons form at the shoot end of the embryo

D) the shoot-root axis is established in the embryo

A) the primary root breaks through the seed coat

12
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Totipotency is a term used to describe a cell's ability to give rise to a complete new organism. In

plants, this means that _____.

A) the cells of shoots and the cells of roots have different genes

B) cell differentiation depends largely on the control of gene expression

C) a cell's environment has no effect on its differentiation

D) plant development is not under genetic control

C) a cell's environment has no effect on its differentiation

13
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Given that early land plants most likely share a common ancestor with green algae, the earliest

land plants were most likely _____.

A) plants with well-developed leaves

B) species that did not exhibit alternation of generations

C) vascular plants with well-defined root systems

D) nonvascular plants that grew leafless, photosynthetic shoots

D) nonvascular plants that grew leafless, photosynthetic shoots

14
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The _____ is the most efficient route of water movement in plants, while the _____ is the most

select.

A) symplast apoplast

B) apoplast: transmembrane

C) transmembrane: symplast

D) apoplast: symplast

B) apoplast: transmembrane

15
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When an animal cell is placed in a hypotonic solution and water enters the cell via osmosis, the

volume of the cell increases until it bursts. This does not happen to plant cells, because _____.

A) they have cell walls, which prevent the entry of water by osmosis

B) they have cell walls, which provide pressure to counteract the pressure of the incoming

water

C) certain gated channel proteins embedded in their plasma membranes open as osmotic

pressure decreases, allowing excess water to leave the cell

D) they have large central vacuoles, which provide abundant space for storage of incoming

water

B) they have cell walls, which provide pressure to counteract the pressure of the incoming

water

16
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How does a flaccid cell differ from a turgid cell?

A) A flaccid cell has higher pressure potential.

B) A flaccid cell has lower pressure potential.

C) A flaccid cell has lower solute potential.

D) A flaccid cell has higher solute potential.

B) A flaccid cell has lower pressure potential.

17
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Which of the following statements about bulk flow are correct?

I) Bulk flow is driven primarily by pressure potential.

II) Bulk flow depends on a difference in pressure potential at the source and sink.

III) Bulk flow depends on the force of gravity on a column of water.

IV) Bulk flow may be the result of either positive or negative pressure potential.

A) I and III

B) I, II, and IV

C) II and III

D) I, II, III, and IV

B) I, II, and IV

18
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Loss of water from the aerial parts of plants is called _____.

A) gas exchange

B) respiration

C) dehydration

D) transpiration

D) transpiration

19
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One is most likely to see guttation in small plants when the _____.

A) roots are not absorbing minerals from the soil

B) transpiration rates are high

C) the preceding evening was hot, windy, and dry

D) root pressure exceeds transpiration pull

D) root pressure exceeds transpiration pull

20
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Transpiration in plants requires _____.

I) adhesion of water molecules to cellulose

II) cohesion between water molecules

III) evaporation of water molecules

IV) active transport through xylem cells

V) transport through tracheids

A) I, III, IV, and V

B) I, II, IV, and V

C) I, II, III, and IV

D) I, II, III, and V

D) I, II, III, and V

21
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Which of the following primarily enters a plant somewhere other than through the roots?

A) water

B) potassium

C) nitrogen

D) carbon dioxide

D) carbon dioxide

22
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Photosynthesis ceases when leaves wilt, mainly because _____.

A) stomata close, preventing carbon dioxide from entering the leaf

B) the chlorophyll in wilting leaves is degraded

C) flaccid mesophyll cells are incapable of photosynthesis

D) accumulation of carbon dioxide in the leaf inhibits enzymes

A) stomata close, preventing carbon dioxide from entering the leaf

23
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What is the advantage of having small, needlelike leaves?

A) increased transpiration rate

B) decreased transpiration rate

C) decreased efficiency of light capture D) increased efficiency of light capture

B) decreased transpiration rate

24
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In the pressure-flow mechanism, loading of sucrose from companion cells to sieve-tube elements

takes place through _____.

A) sucrose-H+ symporters

B) plasmodesmata

C) facilitated diffusion

D) sucrose-H+ antiporters

B) plasmodesmata

25
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Most of the dry mass of a plant is the result of uptake of _____.

A) carbon dioxide through stoma

B) water and minerals through root hairs

C) water and minerals through mycorrhizae

D) carbon dioxide and oxygen through stomata in leaves

A) carbon dioxide through stoma

26
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We would expect the greatest difference in plant health between two groups of plants of the

same species, one group with mycorrhizae and one group without mycorrhizae, in an

environment _____.

A) where nitrogen-fixing bacteria are abundant

B) that is near a body of water, such as a pond or river

C) in which the soil is relatively deficient in mineral nutrients

D) that has soil with poor drainage

C) in which the soil is relatively deficient in mineral nutrients

27
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Soil leaching can cause nutrient deficiencies in the soil. Which of the following are symptoms of

nutrient deficiency in plants?

I) chlorosis

II) death of meristems

III) excess storage of chlorophyll

IV) small internodes

A) II, III, and IV

B) I, II, and III

C) I, II, III, and IV

D) I, II, and IV

C) I, II, III, and IV

28
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The specific relationship between a legume and its mutualistic Rhizobium strain probably

depends on _____.

A) each legume having a chemical dialogue with a fungus

B) each legume being found where the soil has only the Rhizobium specific to that legume

C) each Rhizobium strain having a form of nitrogenase that works only in the appropriate

legume host

D) specific recognition between the chemical signals and signal receptors of the Rhizobium

strain and legume species

D) specific recognition between the chemical signals and signal receptors of the Rhizobium

strain and legume species

29
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How would you expect the root system of a plant grown by hydroponics to compare to the root

system of a plant grown in soil? The root system of a plant grown by hydroponics would be

_____.

A) about the same

B) more developed

C) absent

D) less developed

D) less developed

30
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A plant developed a mineral deficiency after being treated with a fungicide. What is the most

probable cause of the deficiency?

A) Proton pumps reversed the membrane potential.

B) Active transport of minerals was inhibited.

C) Mineral receptor proteins in the plant membrane were not functioning.

D) Mycorrhizal fungi were killed.

D) Mycorrhizal fungi were killed.

31
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Which of the following contributed to the dust bowl in the American southwest during the

1930s?

I) overgrazing by cattle

II) clear-cutting of forest trees

III) plowing of native grasses

IV) lack of soil moisture

A) I and II

B) I, III, and IV

C) I, II, III, IV

D) II, III, and IV

B) I, III, and IV

32
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While hiking in a forest, you notice an unusual plant growing on the branches of a tree. What

will help you to determine if this plant is epiphytic or parasitic?

A) The root of an epiphytic plant will be in the soil, but a parasitic plant will grow from the

trunk of a tree.

B) If the plant is green, it is epiphytic; if not, then it is parasitic.

C) The roots of a parasitic plant will penetrate under the bark into the tree xylem, and the

roots of epiphytic plant will not.

D) The epiphytic plant will have large water collecting leaves, and the parasitic plant will not.

C) The roots of a parasitic plant will penetrate under the bark into the tree xylem, and the

roots of epiphytic plant will not.

33
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Epiphytes are _____.

A) plants that live in poor soil and digest insects to obtain nitrogen

B) plants that grow on other plants but do not obtain nutrients from their hosts

C) plants that have a symbiotic relationship with fungi

D) aerial vines common in tropical regions

B) plants that grow on other plants but do not obtain nutrients from their hosts

34
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Why is nitrogen fixation an essential process?

A) Fixed nitrogen is often the limiting factor in plant growth.

B) Nitrogen fixers are sometimes symbiotic with legumes.

C) Nitrogen fixation is very expensive in terms of metabolic energy.

D) Nitrogen fixation can only be done by certain prokaryotes

A) Fixed nitrogen is often the limiting factor in plant growth.

35
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Golden Rice" _____.

A) is resistant to various herbicides, making it practical to weed rice fields with those

herbicides

B) produces larger, golden grains that increase crop yields

C) contains daffodil genes that increase vitamin A content

D) includes bacterial genes that produce a toxin that reduces damage from insect pests

C) contains daffodil genes that increase vitamin A content

36
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During the alternation of generations in plants, _____.

A) fertilization produces spores

B) fertilization produces gametes

C) mitosis produces gametes

D) meiosis produces gametes

D) meiosis produces gametes

37
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Before plowing a field, a farmer thought the bare field looked weed-free. Three days after

plowing and turning over the soil, he was amazed to see thousands of tiny seedlings. What is the

most likely reason for the mass germination of seeds?

A) small seeds that need light to germinate

B) small seeds that were scarified by exposure to plow

C) large seeds that needed exposure to higher levels of oxygen to germinate

D) large seeds that needed soil disturbance to germinate

A) small seeds that need light to germinate

38
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While looking at a flower in your garden, you notice that it has carpels with very long styles, and

stamens with very short filaments. This plant is most likely to reproduce by _____.

A) asexual reproduction

B) selfing

C) cross-pollination

C) cross-pollination

39
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Which of these events occurs first in seed germination?

A) Oxygen is produced and proteins are synthesized.

B) Mitochondria multiply and provide energy for growth processes.

C) Water is taken up.

D) Cell division occurs in the embryo and growth starts.

C) Water is taken up.

40
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Plants produce more seeds when they reproduce asexually than sexually. Yet most plants

reproduce sexually in nature. What is the probable explanation for the prevalence of sexual

reproduction? Sexual reproduction _____.

A) mixes up alleles contributing to variation in a species

B) is not dependent on other agents of pollination

C) is more energy efficient than asexual reproduction

D) ensures genetic continuity from parents to offspring

A) mixes up alleles contributing to variation in a species

41
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Which of the following flower parts develops into the pulp of a fleshy fruit?

A) ovary

B) style

C) ovule

D) stigma

C) ovule

42
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The egg of a plant has a haploid chromosome number of 12 (n = 12). What is true about the

number of chromosomes in the cells of other tissues of this plant?

A) The leaves and stems have 12 chromosomes.

B) The zygote has 12 chromosomes.

C) The sperm has 6 chromosomes.

D) The endosperm has 36 chromosomes.

D) The endosperm has 36 chromosomes

43
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Regardless of where in the world a vineyard is located, for the winery to produce a Burgundy, it

must use varietal grapes that originated in Burgundy, France. The most effective way for a new

California grower to plant a vineyard to produce Burgundy is to _____.

A) graft varietal Burgundy grape scions onto native (Californian) root stocks

B) acquire a tissue culture of varietal Burgundy grapes from France

C) transplant varietal Burgundy plants from France

D) plant seeds obtained from French varietal Burgundy grapes

A) graft varietal Burgundy grape scions onto native (Californian) root stocks

44
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Many plants flower in response to day-length cues. Which of the following statements best

summarizes this phenomenon?

A) As a rule, long-day plants flower in the spring or fall.

B) Long-day plants flower in response to long days, not short nights.

C) Flowering in short-day and long-day plants is controlled by phytochrome.

D) As a rule, short-day plants flower in the summer.

C) Flowering in short-day and long-day plants is controlled by phytochrome.

45
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In extremely cold regions, woody species may survive freezing temperatures by _____.

A) increasing cytoplasmic levels of specific solute concentrations, such as sugars

B) decreasing the numbers of phospholipids in cell membranes

C) emptying water from the vacuoles to prevent freezing

D) decreasing the fluidity of all cellular membranes

A) increasing cytoplasmic levels of specific solute concentrations, such as sugars

46
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Plants often use changes in day length (photoperiod) to trigger events such as dormancy and

flowering. It is logical that plants have evolved this mechanism because photoperiod changes

_____.

A) are more predictable than air temperature changes

B) predict moisture availability

C) can reset the biological clock

D) are modified by soil temperature changes

A) are more predictable than air temperature changes

47
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Which of the following can function in signal transduction in plants ?

I) calcium ions

II) nonrandom mutations

III) receptor proteins

IV) autochrome

V) secondary messengers

A) only I, II, and V

B) only I, III, and IV

C) only I, III, and V

D) only II, III, and V

C) only I, III, and V

48
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The rapid leaf movements resulting from a response to touch (thigmotropism) primarily involve

_____.

A) aquaporins

B) stress proteins

C) nervous tissue

D) potassium channels

D) potassium channels

49
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You are out working in your garden, and you notice that one of your favorite flowering plants

has black, dead spots on the leaves. You immediately suspect that the plant has been invaded by

a pathogen and has initiated a(n) _____.

A) hypersensitive response

B) avirulence response

C) resistance response

D) virulence response

A) hypersensitive response

50
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In lettuce seeds, blue light initiates germination. If you measured hormone levels within the

seed, which hormone would be produced upon exposure to blue light?

51) _____

A) abscisic acid

B) gibberellin

C) cytokinins

D) ethylene

B) gibberellin

51
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If you were shipping green bananas to a supermarket thousands of miles away, which of the

following chemicals would you want to eliminate from the plants' environment?

A) auxin

B) carbon dioxide

C) cytokinins

D) ethylene

D) ethylene

52
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As cytokinins are primarily produced in roots, what route would they travel to influence lateral

shoot formation in a recently topped tree?

A) apoplastic

B) trachieds/vessels

C) symplastic

D) phloem

B) trachieds/vessels

53
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There are advantages and disadvantages to adaptations. Animals that are endothermic are likely

to be at the greatest disadvantage in _____.

A) environments with a constant food source

B) very cold environments

C) very hot environments

D) environments with variable and limited food sources

D) environments with variable and limited food sources

54
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Organisms maintain dynamic homeostasis (internal balance) through behavioral and

physiological mechanisms. Which of the following statements is an accurate explanation of a

negative feedback mechanism used by animals to regulate body temperature?

A) A goldfish slows its movements when the water temperature is lower.

B) A ground squirrel's hypothalamus detects changes in environmental temperatures and

responds by activating or suppressing metabolic heat production.

C) Desert jackrabbits have unusually large ears that serve as solar heat collectors to enable

them to maintain their body temperatures.

D) Squirrels are able to cool themselves during warmer months by producing more brown

fat, which contains abundant mitochondria and a rich blood supply.

B) A ground squirrel's hypothalamus detects changes in environmental temperatures and

responds by activating or suppressing metabolic heat production.

55
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To prepare flight muscles for use on a cool morning, hawkmoths _____.

A) rapidly contract and relax these muscles to generate metabolic warmth

B) reduce the metabolic rate of the muscles to rest them before flight

C) decrease their standard metabolic rate

D) relax the muscles completely until after they launch themselves into the air

A) rapidly contract and relax these muscles to generate metabolic warmth

56
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Of the following choices, the epithelium with the shortest diffusion distance is _____.

A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

B) simple squamous epithelium

C) simple columnar epithelium

D) stratified squamous epithelium

B) simple squamous epithelium

57
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You are looking through a microscope at a slide of animal tissue and see a single layer of flat,

closely packed cells that cover a surface. This specific tissue is most likely _____.

A) a neuron

B) a tendon

C) epithelial

D) adipose

C) epithelial

58
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The type of muscle tissue surrounding the intestines and blood vessels is _____.

A) intercalated cells

B) cardiac muscle

C) smooth muscle

D) skeletal muscle

C) smooth muscle

59
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Cardiac muscle cells are both _____.

A) smooth and under involuntary control

B) striated and interconnected by intercalated disks

C) smooth and under voluntary control

D) striated and under voluntary control

A) smooth and under involuntary control

60
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An animal's inputs of energy and materials would exceed its outputs if _____.

A) it is hibernating

B) the animal is an endotherm, which must always take in more energy because of its high

metabolic rate

C) it is actively foraging for food

D) it is growing and increasing its mass

D) it is growing and increasing its mass

61
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If an organism was discovered that had no epithelial tissues, it would require adaptations to

maintain homeostasis in which of the following areas? The organism would require adaptations

_____.

A) in its muscular system for movement

B) in its skeleton for structure

C) that would prevent water loss from the body in a terrestrial environment

D) in its nervous system for sensing external stimuli

C) that would prevent water loss from the body in a terrestrial environment

62
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Positive feedback differs from negative feedback in that _____.

A) positive feedback systems have only effectors, whereas negative feedback systems have

only receptors

B) the positive feedback's effector responses are in the same direction as the initiating

stimulus rather than opposite of it

C) positive feedback benefits the organism, whereas negative feedback is detrimental

D) the effector's response increases some parameter (such as body temperature), whereas in

negative feedback it can only decrease the parameter

B) the positive feedback's effector responses are in the same direction as the initiating

stimulus rather than opposite of it

63
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Most land-dwelling invertebrates and all of the amphibians _____.

A) are ectothermic organisms with variable body temperatures

B) are endotherms but become thermoconformers when they are in water

C) alter their metabolic rates to maintain a constant body temperature of 37°C

D) become more active when environmental temperatures drop below 15°C

A) are ectothermic organisms with variable body temperatures

64
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Food moves along the digestive tract as the result of contractions by _____.

A) skeletal muscle

B) cardiac muscle

C) smooth muscle

D) striated muscle

C) smooth muscle

65
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Which of the following would increase the rate of heat exchange between an animal and its

environment?

A) wind blowing across the body surface B) feathers or fur

C) blubber or fat layer

D) vasoconstriction

A) wind blowing across the body surface

66
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The panting responses that are observed in overheated birds and mammals dissipate excess heat

by _____.

A) evaporation

B) countercurrent exchange

C) acclimation

D) vasoconstriction

A) evaporation

67
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A moth preparing for flight on a cold morning may warm its flight muscles via _____.

A) shivering thermogenesis

B) torpor

C) evaporative cooling

D) acclimatization

A) shivering thermogenesis

68
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Which principle of heat exchange is the most important explanation for why birds look larger in

colder weather because they fluff their feathers?

A) Fluffing decreases the surface-area-to-volume ratio, thus decreasing the amount of heat

lost to the environment.

B) Fluffing creates a pocket of air near the bird that acts as insulation.

C) Fluffing feathers results in less cooling by radiation because feathers emit less infrared

radiation than other tissues do.

D) Fluffing decreases the amount of heat lost by conduction when the bird makes contact

with cold objects in its environment

A) Fluffing decreases the surface-area-to-volume ratio, thus decreasing the amount of heat

lost to the environment.

69
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Much of the coordination of vertebrate body functions via chemical signals is accomplished by

the _____.

A) endocrine system

B) excretory system

C) respiratory system

D) integumentary system

A) endocrine system

70
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An elephant and a mouse are running in full sunlight, and both overheat by the same amount

above their normal body temperatures. When they move into the shade and rest, which animal

will cool down faster?

A) The mouse will because it has the higher surface-area-to-volume ratio.

B) They will cool at the same rate because they overheated by the same amount.

C) The elephant will because it has the lower surface-area-to-volume ratio.

D) The elephant will because it has the higher surface-area-to-volume ratio.

A) The mouse will because it has the higher surface-area-to-volume ratio.

71
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Cardiac muscle cells are both _____.

A) striated and under voluntary control

B) striated and interconnected by intercalated disks

C) smooth and under involuntary control

D) smooth and under voluntary control

C) smooth and under involuntary control.

72
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Snake behavior in Wisconsin changes throughout the year. For example, a snake is _____.

A) less active in winter because the food supply is decreased

B) more active in summer because it can gain body heat by conduction

C) more active in summer because that is the period for mating

D) less active in winter because it does not need to avoid predators

B) more active in summer because it can gain body heat by conduction

73
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If you were to jog one kilometer a few hours after lunch, which stored fuel would you probably

tap?

A) liver glycogen and muscle glycogen

B) fat stored in adipose tissue

C) muscle proteins

D) blood proteins

A) liver glycogen and muscle glycogen

74
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The large surface area in the gut directly facilitates _____.

A) absorption

B) temperature regulation

C) secretion

D) filtration

A) absorption

75
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The absorption of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that _____.

A) carbohydrates need to be emulsified before they can be digested, whereas fats do not

B) most absorbed fat first enters the lymphatic system, whereas carbohydrates directly enter

the blood

C) fat absorption primarily occurs in the stomach, whereas carbohydrates are absorbed from

the small intestine

D) fats, but not carbohydrates, are digested by bacteria before absorption

B) most absorbed fat first enters the lymphatic system, whereas carbohydrates directly enter

the blood

76
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When a woman has her gallbladder removed, she should probably reduce her consumption of

_____.

A) fats

B) proteins

C) proteins and carbohydrates

D) carbohydrates

A) fats

77
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A fasting animal whose energy needs exceed those provided in its diet draws on its stored

resources in which order?

A) liver glycogen, then muscle glycogen, then fat

B) fat, then glycogen, then protein

C) glycogen, then protein, then fat

D) muscle glycogen, then fat, then liver glycogen

A) liver glycogen, then muscle glycogen, then fat

78
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Because the foods eaten by animals are often composed largely of macromolecules, animals need

to have mechanisms for _____.

A) enzymatic hydrolysis

B) dehydration synthesis

C) demineralization

D) regurgitation

A) enzymatic hydrolysis

79
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The function of mechanical digestion is to break down large chunks of food into smaller pieces.

Why is this important? Smaller pieces of food _____.

A) have more surface area for chemical digestion than do larger pieces of food

B) are more easily stored in the stomach than are larger pieces of food

C) do not taste as good as larger pieces of food

D) are easier to excrete than are larger pieces of food

A) have more surface area for chemical digestion than do larger pieces of food

80
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A relatively long cecum is characteristic of animals that are_____.

A) omnivores

B) autotrophs

C) herbivores

D) carnivores

C) herbivores

81
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In marine sponges, intracellular digestion of peptides is usually immediately preceded by _____.

A) secretion

B) phagocytosis

C) hydrolysis

D) absorption

B) phagocytosis

82
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Upon activation by stomach acidity, the secretions of the parietal cells _____.

A) initiate the chemical digestion of lipids in the stomach

B) delay digestion until the food arrives in the small intestine

C) initiate the mechanical digestion of lipids in the stomach

D) initiate the chemical digestion of protein in the stomach

D) initiate the chemical digestion of protein in the stomach

83
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What is the importance of consuming an adequate amount of proteins in the diet?

A) Proteins serve a variety of functions, and the body does not store excess quantities of

protein.

B) Proteins are necessary to produce urea and other important metabolites.

C) They are used as cofactors for metabolic reactions and are required in minute quantities.

D) They are most commonly used to meet energy demands of cells.

A) Proteins serve a variety of functions, and the body does not store excess quantities of

protein.

84
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Which of the following animals is correctly paired with its feeding mechanism?

A) baleen whale — fluid feeder

B) aphid — suspension feeder

C) snake — bulk feeder

D) clam — substrate feeder

C) snake — bulk feeder

85
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Cattle are able to survive on a diet consisting almost entirely of plant material because cattle

_____.

A) re-ingest their feces

B) are autotrophic

C) have cellulose-digesting, symbiotic microorganisms in chambers of their stomachs

D) manufacture all fifteen amino acids out of sugars in the liver

C) have cellulose-digesting, symbiotic microorganisms in chambers of their stomachs

86
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The active ingredient orlistat acts to decrease the amount of fat that is absorbed by attaching to

enzymes that digest fat. Which of the following are potential targets of orlistat?

A) salivary amylase

B) secretin

C) pepsidase

D) pancreatic lipase

D) pancreatic lipase

87
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Fat digestion yields fatty acids and glycerol, whereas protein digestion yields amino acids; both

digestive processes _____.

A) are catalyzed by the same enzyme

B) require the presence of hydrochloric acid to lower the pH

C) use water molecules when breaking bonds (hydrolysis)

D) require adenosine triphosphate (ATP) as an energy source

B) require the presence of hydrochloric acid to lower the pH

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Digestive secretions with a pH of 2 are characteristic of the _____.

A) liver

B) small intestine

C) stomach

D) pancreas

C) stomach

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If a molecule of carbon dioxide released into the blood in your left toe is exhaled from your nose,

it must pass through all of the following EXCEPT _____.

A) the trachea

B) the right atrium

C) the pulmonary vein

D) an alveolus

C) the pulmonary vein

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The velocity of blood flow is the lowest in capillaries because _____.

A) the systemic capillaries are supplied by the left ventricle, which has a lower cardiac output

than the right ventricle

B) the capillaries have internal valves that slow the flow of blood

C) the total cross-sectional area of the capillaries is greater than the total cross-sectional area

of the arteries or any other part of the circulatory system

D) the diastolic blood pressure is too low to deliver blood to the capillaries at a high flow rate

C) the total cross-sectional area of the capillaries is greater than the total cross-sectional area

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A human red blood cell in an artery of the left arm is on its way to deliver oxygen to a cell in the

thumb. To travel from the artery to the thumb and then back to the left ventricle, this red blood

cell must pass through _____.

A) one capillary bed

B) four capillary beds

C) three capillary beds

D) two capillary beds

D) two capillary beds

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In an open circulatory system, blood is _____.

A) not always confined to blood vessels and is under lower pressure than in closed

circulatory systems

B) always inside of vessels and is under higher pressure than in closed circulatory systems

C) not always confined to blood vessels and is under higher pressure than in closed

circulatory systems

D) always inside of vessels and is under lower pressure than in closed circulatory systems

A) not always confined to blood vessels and is under lower pressure than in closed

circulatory systems

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What will be the long-term effect of blocking the lymphatic vessels associated with a capillary

bed?

A) the area of the blockage becoming abnormally small

B) the accumulation of more fluid in the interstitial areas

C) an increase in the blood pressure in the capillary bed

D) more fluid entering the venous capillaries

B) the accumulation of more fluid in the interstitial areas

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Compared with the interstitial fluid that bathes active muscle cells, blood reaching these muscle

cells in arteries has a _____.

A) lower osmotic pressure

B) greater bicarbonate concentration

C) higher P02

D) lower pH

C) higher P02

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A normal event in the process of blood clotting is the _____.

A) synthesis of hemoglobin

B) conversion of fibrin to fibrinogen

C) production of erythropoietin

D) activation of prothrombin to thrombin

D) activation of prothrombin to thrombin

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If, during protein starvation, the osmotic pressure on the venous side of capillary beds drops

below the hydrostatic pressure, then _____.

A) fluids will tend to accumulate in tissues

B) the pH of the interstitial fluids will increase

C) plasma proteins will escape through the endothelium of the capillaries

A) fluids will tend to accumulate in tissues

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A patient with a blood pressure of 120/75, a pulse rate of 70 beats/minute, a stroke volume of 70

mL/beat (milliliters per beat), and a respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute will have a cardiac

output of _____.

A) 4,900 mL/minute

B) 1,000 mL/minute

C) 1,750 mL/minute

D) 2,800 mL/minute

D) 2,800 mL/minute

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You are a physician, and you are seeing a patient who complains of abnormal fatigue during

exercise. You find that the immediate problem is a buildup of carbon dioxide in the tissues.

What is the most likely cause?

A) abnormal hemoglobin

B) abnormal carbonic anhydrase

C) not enough hemoglobin

D) abnormally shaped platelets

B) abnormal carbonic anhydrase

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The only vertebrates in which blood flows directly from respiratory organs to body tissues without first returning to the heart are the _____.

A) reptiles

B) amphibians

C) fishes

D) mammals

C) fishes

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An oil-water mixture works as an insecticidal spray against mosquitoes and other insects

because it _____.

A) prevents gases from leaving the atmosphere

B) interferes with gas exchange across the capillaries

C) blocks the openings into the tracheal system

D) clogs their bronchi

C) blocks the openings into the tracheal system