1/53
Looks like no tags are added yet.
Name | Mastery | Learn | Test | Matching | Spaced |
---|
No study sessions yet.
What are some common misconceptions about older adults?
Inability to live independently
Most with diminished intellectual capacity or senility
Homogeneity: all alike, with no individual differences
Inability to learn new things
Withdrawn, inactive, nonproductive
Liability: expensive, draining on economy
What Primary health prevention factors are needed for a healthy older adult?
Health education; follow-through of sound personal health practices; recommended immunizations
Nutrition, oral health, exercise, safety needs, sleep
Economic security needs
What does Secondary Prevention do for the health needs of older adults?
Focus on early detection of disease and prompt intervention
Routine screening for hypertension, diabetes, cancer
What does Tertiary Prevention do for the health needs of older adults?
Follow-up and rehabilitation
Health issues: Alzheimer’s disease, arthritis, cancer, depression, diabetes, cardiovascular disease, osteoporosis
What is Elder Abuse?
“Intentional or neglectful acts by a caregiver or any other person that causes harm or a serious risk of harm to a vulnerable adult”
Physical abuse
Neglect
Emotional or psychological abuse
Verbal abuse and threats
Financial abuse and exploitation
Sexual abuse
Abandonment
Which would be most accurate when describing the changes occurring in the older adult population globally?
A. Males have a longer projected life expectancy than females.
B. Most countries have adequate social programs for older adults.
C. Adults over age 65 are expected to account for about 25% of the population by 2050.
D. The over-80-year age group is the fastest-growing segment of the group.
D. The over-80-year age group is the fastest-growing segment of the group
Who are the home health clients?
Clients include individual, family, significant others
Individuals are predominantly:
Older than 65 years, but not exclusively
Individuals tend to:
Have chronic health needs (e.g., diabetes, COPD, CHF)
Rely on care from family members (who may exhibit signs of compassion fatigue)
FOCUS: empowerment for highest possible levels of function and health
Who provides reimbursement for home health care?
Corporate
Insurance companies, HMOs, PPOs, and case management programs
Governmental third-party payers
Medicare, Medicaid, military health system, and Veterans’ administration
Individual clients and families
What is the Medicare Home health criteria and reimbursement?
The patient must:
Be confined to home or homebound
Need skilled services (from a nurse or therapist)
Be under care of a physician
Receive services under a home health plan of care established and periodically reviewed by a physician
Have had a face-to-face encounter related to home health condition with a physician or NP
Episode of care: 60 days
Admission: assessment using Outcome and Assessment Information Set (OASIS)
Medicare documentation: OASIS, Medicare plan of care
What is the OASIS document and what does it do?
The Home Health Outcome and Assessment Information Set contains data items developed to measure patient outcomes and for improve home health care.
The OASIS assessments are required of all home health agencies certified to accept Medicare and Medicaid payments.
What is standard nurse practice during a home visit?
Contacting patient and/or family to schedule visit
Locating the home
Assessment begins at the curb
Promoting self-management
Collaborating, mobilizing, strengthening, teaching, and solving problems
Focus is on the three levels of prevention
What are some challenges when a nurse visits a home?
Infection control
Clients
Home health care team
Medication safety
Risk for falls (do home safety check)
Technology at home
Nurse safety
What is the role of the home health nurse?
Nurse as a case manager for each client
Coordinating other professionals and paraprofessionals involved in the client’s care
Serving as primary contact with client’s healthcare provider
Case conferencing with team members (Medicare mandate—every 60 days)
Supervising paraprofessionals
What are the goals of hospice care?
Provide
Provide comfort and relief of physical, emotional, social and spiritual suffering
Promote
Promote dignity
Prepare
Prepare patient/family for death
Provide a peaceful “good” death as defined by the patient and family
Empower patient/family to make decisions relating to life closure
What is Palliative Care?
Consists of comfort and symptom management
Does not provide a cure
As any care, primarily intended to relieve the burden of physical and emotional suffering that often accompanies the illnesses associated with aging
What are the 4 types of hospice & palliative care?
Routine home care with intermittent visits
Continuous home care when condition is acute and death is near
General inpatient/hospital care for symptom relief
Respite care in nursing home of no more than 5 days at a time to relieve family members
What are the 4 categories of hospice providers?
Home health agencies
Hospital-based facilities
Skilled nursing facilities
Freestanding facilities
What are the Medicare Hospice Benefit Requirements?
Client must:
Have a prognosis of 6 months or less to live
Acknowledge a terminal prognosis
Choose comfort care instead of life-extending care
Sign up for comfort-focused hospice benefit
Waive regular Medicare health services
What is the role of the practicing hospice nurse?
RN as central to hospice interdisciplinary team
Case manager; frequent visits
Collaboration with healthcare providers
Rotation through 24-hour call 7 days/week to assure continuous availability by telephone and visits for emergent problems
Competencies similar to those of home health nurses, along with expertise in relieving physical and emotional suffering of terminally ill people and their families
What does SBIRT stand for?
Screening
Brief
Intervention
Referral to
Treatment
What is SBIRT?
comprehensive and integrated public health approach to the delivery of early intervention and treatment services through universal screening for persons with substance use disorders (SUD) and those at risk of developing these disorders
What is the Screening Core component of SBIRT?
The use of validated procedures to quickly assess patient substance use risk and select appropriate care.
What is the brief intervention core component of SBIRT?
A 5-15 minute discussion that aims to increase patient understanding of the risks and build toward behavior change.
What is the Referral to Treatment part of SBIRT?
A linking of appropriate patients to appropriate SUD treatment (specialty care)
What is the aim of SBIRT?
identify patients whose substance use puts them at hazardous or harmful risk levels, even if diagnostic criteria of an SUD is not met
How many people meet the criteria for harmful or hazardous substance use?
Approx. 15-40%
What is the current approach of preventing substance use disorders?
Focuses on early intervention Identifies individuals at an early stage in substance misuse prior to the development of a SUD
What are the principles of screening for substance use disorder?
universal, brief, and indicative of next steps
can be used on all patients
only takes a few minutes
determines an appropriate intervention based on patient risk level
How many drinks is safe for Men less than 65 yrs to have per week?
Less than 14
How many drinks is safe for Men & Women older than 65 yrs to have per week?
Less than 7
How many drinks is safe for Men less than 65 yrs to have in a day?
Less than 4
How many drinks is safe for Men & Women older than 65 yrs to have per day?
Less than 3
How much alcohol is in a “standard drink”?
12 oz beer (5% alc/vol)
8-9 oz malt liquor (7% alc/vol)
5 oz wine (12% alc/vol)
1.5 oz liquor (40% alc/vol)
What does the The National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) Single Question Screen?
Alcohol
What does the National Institute on Drug Abuse (NIDA) Single Question screen?
Drugs
What type of question does the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) ask?
How many times in the past year have you had more than (4 for men, 3 for women) drinks in a day?
A response of 1 or greater is considered a positive screen that indicates further screening is needed.
What type of question does the National Institute on Drug Abuse (NIDA) ask?
How many times in the past year have you used an illegal drug or used a prescription medication for non-medical reasons?
A response of 1 or greater is considered a positive screen that indicates further screening is needed.
What is the ASSIST screen tool and what does it do?
Alcohol, Smoking, and Substance Involvement Screening Test
developed by the World Health Organization (WHO) for use in primary care settings to detect and manage hazardous substance use.
It uses the same questions to assess alcohol, tobacco, and other drug use.
What is needed when the client’s ASSIST scores are b/w 0-10 for alcohol and 0-3 for drugs?
Positive Reinforcement
What is needed when the client’s ASSIST scores are b/w 11-26 for alcohol and 4-26 for drugs?
Brief Intervention
What is needed when the client’s ASSIST scores are 27+ for alcohol and drugs?
Intensive Treatment
What is the AUDIT screening tool and what does it do?
The Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test
a 10-item screening tool also developed by the WHO
only screens for alcohol use. It assesses alcohol consumption, drinking behaviors, and problems related to alcohol use
What is needed when a client’s AUDIT scores are b/w 0-6 (Zone I) for Men & Women greater than 65?
Feedback
What is needed when a client’s AUDIT scores are b/w 0-7 (Zone I) for Men less than 65?
Feedback
What is needed when a client’s AUDIT scores are b/w 7-15 (Zone II) for Men/Women over 65?
Feedback/Brief Intervention
What is needed when a client’s AUDIT scores are b/w 8-15 (Zone II) for Men less than 65?
Feedback/Brief Intervention
What is needed when a client’s AUDIT scores are b/w 16-19 (Zone III)?
Feedback/Brief Outpatient Treatment
What is needed when a client’s AUDIT scores are 20+ (Zone IV)?
Brief Intervention/Medical Intervention and Referral to Treatment
What is AUDIT-C and what does it test for?
The Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test - Consumption
Can be used as an initial screen to determine if the full test is needed
What is the CRAFFT test and what does it test for?
Car, Relax, Alone, Forget, Family/Friends, Trouble
a two-part tool that screens for alcohol and other drug use in adolescents (< 21 years old)
What is a brief intervention (BI)?
A brief dialogue with a patient to explore the consequences of substance use with the intent to strengthen the patient’s own motivation and commitment to positive behavior change
What are the components of Brief Interventions (BIs)?
Feedback on the risks assoc. w/ substance use (disclosing results)
Exploration of behaviors related to substance use (Pros vs cons)
Strategy with set goals and specific action steps (0-10 how ready for change)
What is the F-L-O Process?
Feedback
Listening
Options
What is OARS (as part of the Listening process)?
Open-ended questions
Affirmative statements
Reflective statements
Summarizations