FAA PPL Test Prep: Ch. 5 (1 of 2): Procedures and Airport Operations

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80 Terms

1
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The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is
refer to figure 50

A. left hand for runway 36 and right hand for runway 18
B. left hand for runway 18 and right hand for runway 36
C. right hand for runway 9 and left hand for runway 27

A. left hand for runway 36 and right hand for runway 18

2
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The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the

A. south of the airport
B. north of the airport
C. southeast of the airport

C. southeast of the airport

3
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The segmented circle indicates that a landing on runway 26 will be with a refer to figure 50

A. right quartering headwind
B. left quartering headwind
C. right quartering tailwind

A. right quartering headwind

4
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Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle
refer to figure 50

A. right hand traffic on runway 9
B. right hand traffic on runway 18
C. left hand traffic on runway 36

C. left hand traffic on runway 36

5
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When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign

A. indicates direction to take off runway
B. indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway
C. indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

C. indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

6
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Which symbol indicates a taxiway/taxiway intersection hold position marking
refer to figure 64

A--B
B--D
C--E

C--E

7
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Which marking indicates a vehicle lane
refer to figure 64

A--A
B--C
C--E

B--C

8
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The "yellow demarcation bar" marking indicates

A. a runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway
B. a hold line from a taxiway to a runway
C. the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side

a runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway

9
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You have requested taxi instructions for takeoff using runway 16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions: "N123, Taxi to runway 16." Where are you required to stop in order to be in compliance with the controller's instructions
(refer to the runway incursion figure 5-9)

A--5 (Five)
B--6 (Six)
C--9 (Nine)

A--5 (Five)

10
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What does the outbound destination sign identify

A. identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway
B. identifies direction to take off runways
C. identifies runway on which an aircraft is located

B. identifies direction to take off runways

11
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Which airport marking is a runway safety area/obstacle free zone boundary
refer to figure 65

A--G
B--H
C--N

A--G

12
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From the cockpit, marking G confirms the aircraft to be
refer to figure 65

A. on a taxiway about to enter runway zone
B. on a runway about to clear
C. near an instrument approach clearance zone

B. on a runway about to clear

13
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The portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for
refer to figure 48

A. landing
B. taxiing and takeoff
C. taxiing and landing

B. taxiing and takeoff

14
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According to the airport diagram, which statement is true (refer to figure 48)

A. runway 30 is equipped at position E with emergency arresting gear to provide a means of stopping military aircraft
B. takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12 and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B
C. the takeoff and landing portion of runway 30 begins at position E

B. takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12 and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B

15
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Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a
refer to figure 48

A. stabilized area
B. multiple heliport
C. closed runway

C. closed runway

16
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The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area
refer to figure 49

A. may be used only for taxiing
B. is usable for taxiing takeoff and landing
C. cannot be used for landing but may be used for taxiing and takeoff

C. cannot be used for landing but may be used for taxiing and takeoff

17
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Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing
refer to figure 49

A. left hand traffic and runway 18
B. right hand traffic and runway 18
C. left hand traffic and runway 22

B. right hand traffic and runway 18

18
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If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on

A. runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right
B. runway 22 directly into the wind
C. runway 36 and expect a cross wind from the right

C. runway 36 and expect a cross wind from the right

19
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Sign F confirms your position on
refer to figure 65

A. runway 22
B. routing to runway 22
C. taxiway 22

A. runway 22

20
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Sign E is a visual clue that
refer to figure 65j

A. confirms the aircraft location to be on taxiway B
B. warns the pilot of approaching taxiway B
C. indicates B holding area is ahead

A. confirms the aircraft location to be on taxiway B

21
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A left turn at the intersection depicting sign A would place the aircraft
refer to figure 65

A. ready for a runway 4 intersection takeoff
B. on the taxiway leading to runway 4
C. ready for a runway 22 intersection takeoff

C. ready for a runway 22 intersection takeoff

22
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An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

A. there are obstructions on the airport
B. that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums
C. the air traffic control tower is not in operation

B. that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums

23
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Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by

A. white directional lights
B. blue omnidirectional lights
C. alternate red and green lights

B. blue omnidirectional lights

24
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To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it

A. one time within four seconds
B. three times within three seconds
C. five times within five seconds

C. five times within five seconds

25
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A lighted heliport may be identified by a

A. green yellow and white rotating beacon
B. flashing yellow light
C. blue lighted square landing area

A. green yellow and white rotating beacon

26
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A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits

A. white and green alternating flashes
B. two quick white flashes between green flashes
C. green yellow and white flashes

B. two quick white flashes between green flashes

27
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How can a military airport be identified at night
A. alternate white and green light flashes
B. dual peaked two quick white flashes between green flashes
C. white flashing lights with steady green at the same location

B. dual peaked two quick white flashes between green flashes

28
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Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI

A. runway identification and course guidance
B. safe obstruction clearance in the approach area
C. lateral course guidance to the runway

B. safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

29
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A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

A. pulsating white light
B. steady white light
C. pulsating red light

C. pulsating red light

30
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While operating in Class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall

A. maintain a 3 degrees glide until approximately one half mile to the runway before going below the VASI
B. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing
C. stay high until the runway can be reached in a power off landing

B. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing

31
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When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall

A. maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold
B. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope
C. remain on the glide slope and land between the two light bar

B. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

32
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A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is

A. four white lights
B. three white lights and one red light
C. two white lights and two red lights

B. three white lights and one red light

33
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Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is
refer to figure 47

A. below the glide slope
B. on the glide slope
C. above the glide slope

B. on the glide slope

34
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VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is
refer to figure 47

A. off course to the left
B. above the glide slope
C. below the glide slope

B. above the glide slope

35
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While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2 bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is

A. above the glide path
B. below the glide path
C. on the glide path

B. below the glide path

36
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When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds which aileron positions should be used

A. aileron down on the downwind side
B. ailerons neutral
C. aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing

C. aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing

37
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Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds

A. aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing
B. aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing
C. aileron neutral

A. aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing

38
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Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high wing airplane

A. quartering tailwind
B. direct crosswind
C. quartering headwind

A. quartering tailwind

39
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How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind
refer to figure 9 area A

A. left aileron up elevator neutral
B. left aileron down elevator neutral
C. left aileron up elevator down

A. left aileron up elevator neutral

40
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How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tail wheel airplane into a right quartering headwind
refer to figure 9 area B

A. right aileron up elevator up
B. right aileron down elevator neutral
C. right aileron up elevator down

A. right aileron up elevator up

41
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How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind
refer to figure 9 area C

A. left aileron up elevator neutral
B. left aileron down elevator neutral
C. left aileron down elevator down

C. left aileron down elevator down

42
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How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle gear equipped airplane with a left quartering tailwind
refer to figure 9 area C

A. left aileron up elevator neutral
B. left aileron down elevator down
C. left aileron up elevator down

B. left aileron down elevator down

43
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To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the

A. direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway
B. longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion
C. downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift

C. downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift

44
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For information about the parachute jumping operations at Lincoln Reginal/Harder (LHM) Airport, refer to
refer to figure 71, area 4 and legend 1

A. notes on the border of the chart
B. the Chart Supplements US
C. the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication

B. the Chart Supplements US

45
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Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

A. NOTAMs
B. chart supplements US
C. graphic notices and supplemental data

B. chart supplements US

46
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Where is Loup City Municipal located in relation to the city
refer to figure 52

A. northeast approximately 3 miles
B. northwest approximately 1 mile
C. east approximately 7 miles

B. northwest approximately 1 mile

47
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Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are
refer to figure 52

A. to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 36
B. to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35 to the left on Runway 36
C. to the right on Runways 14 to 32

B. to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35 to the left on Runway 36

48
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What is the length of the displaced threshold for runway 22 at Toledo (TDZ)
refer to figure 63

A. 25 feet
B. 100 feet
C. 380 feet

C. 380 feet

49
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Inbound to Pierre Regional (PIR) from the South-West, with wind 240 at 12 knots, expect to make

A. left traffic for runway 25
B. right traffic for runway 25
C. left traffic for runway 07

A. left traffic for runway 25

50
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Where in relation to the airfield is the airport beacon located for Sioux City (SUX) airport?
refer to figure 78, 79 and legend 3

A. west of runway 17 to 35
B. east of runway 17 to 35
C. approach end of runway 31

B. east of runway 17 to 35

51
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When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with
refer to figure 52

A. Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz
B. Minneapolis Center on 128.75 MHz
C. Lincoln Tower on 118.5 MHz

A. Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz

52
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Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal
refer to figure 52

A. sequencing to the primary Class C airport and standard separation
B. sequencing to the primary Class C airport and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not touch or 1000 feet vertical separation
C. sequencing to the primary Class C airport traffic advisories conflict resolution and safety alerts

C. sequencing to the primary Class C airport traffic advisories conflict resolution and safety alerts

53
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What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation
refer to figure 52

A. monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz
B. Contact UNICOM on 122.95 MHz for traffic advisories
C. monitor ATIS for airport conditions then announce your position on 122.95 MHz**

A. monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz

54
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Most midair collision accidents occur during

A. hazy days
B. clear days
C. cloudy nights

B. clear days

55
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Prior to starting each maneuver, pilot should

A. check altitude airspeed and heading indications
B. visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance
C. announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF

B. visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

56
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What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight

A. haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity
B. the eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily
C. all traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance

C. all traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance

57
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Eye movement during daytime collision avoidance scanning should

A. not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second
B. be 30 degrees and view each sector at least 3 seconds
C. use peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing

A. not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second

58
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Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight

A. systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals
B. concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area
C. continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left

A. systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals

59
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How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft

A. the other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate
B. the nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space
C. there will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft

C. there will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft

60
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What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying

A. wear sunglasses after sunset until ready for flight
B. avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight
C. avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight

C. avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight

61
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What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight

A. look only at far away dim lights
B. scan slowly to permit off center viewing
C. concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds

B. scan slowly to permit off center viewing

62
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The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to

A. look to the side of the object and scan slowly
B. scan the visual field very rapidly
C. look to the side of the object and scan rapidly

C. look to the side of the object and scan rapidly

63
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The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use

A. regularly spaced concentration on the 3 9 and 12 o clock positions
B. a series of short regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30 degree sector
C. peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing

C. peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing

64
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VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished

A. at a higher airspeed
B. with a steeper descent
C. the same as during daytime

C. the same as during daytime

65
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The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

A. 009 and 027 true
B. 090 and 270 true
C. 090 and 270 magnetic

C. 090 and 270 magnetic

66
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The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately

A. 008 and 026 true
B. 080 and 260 true
C. 080 and 260 magnetic

C. 080 and 260 magnetic

67
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Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program?

A. recreational pilots only
B. military pilots
C. student pilots

C. student pilots

68
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Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

A. Pilot in command
B. air traffic controller
C. second in command

A. Pilot in command

69
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When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

A. when it will compromise safety
B. only when the tower operator concurs
C. pilots cannot decline clearance

A. when it will compromise safety

70
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Where is the "Available Landing Distance" (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)?

A. special notices section of the chart supplements U.S (formerly airport facility directory)
B. 14 CFR Part 91, General operating and flight rules
C. Aeronautical information manual (AIM)

A. special notices section of the chart supplements U.S (formerly airport facility directory)

71
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What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short ( LAHSO) clearance?

A. 3 nautical miles
B. 3 statute miles
C. 1 statute mile

B. 3 statute miles

72
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When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with continuous lines, the pilot

A. may continue taxiing
B. should not cross the lines without ATC clearance
C. should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines

B. should not cross the lines without ATC clearance

73
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What is the purpose of the runway hold position sign?

A. denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway
B. denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway
C. denotes intersecting runways

C. denotes intersecting runways

74
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What is the purpose of the No Entry sign?

A. identifies a paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering
B. identifies area that does not continue beyond intersection
C. identifies the exit boundary for the runway protected area

A. identifies a paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering

75
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Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?

A. End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.

B. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

C. Sunset to sunrise.

C. Sunset to sunrise.

76
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Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and when operating within

A. Class B airspace.

B. 10 miles of any airport.

C. within 15 miles of a towered airport.

B. 10 miles of any airport.

77
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The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating

A. in Class B airspace.

B. in conditions of reduced visibility.

C. within 15 miles of a towered airport.

B. in conditions of reduced visibility.

78
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During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A. The other aircraft is crossing to the left.

B. The other aircraft is crossing to the right.

C. The other aircraft is approaching head-on.

A. The other aircraft is crossing to the left.

79
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During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A. The other aircraft is flying away from you.

B. The other aircraft is crossing to the left.

C. The other aircraft is crossing to the right.

A. The other aircraft is flying away from you.

80
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During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A. The other aircraft is crossing to the left.

B. The other aircraft is flying away from you.

C. The other aircraft is approaching head-on.

C. The other aircraft is approaching head-on.