Chapter 12 review quiz

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109 Terms

1
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A PA radiograph taken on a hypersthenic patient during an upper GI series reveals that the pylorus and duodenal bulb are superimposed. Which of the following modifications will best eliminate the superimposition between these structures

angle the CR 35 to 45 degrees cephalad

2
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which of the following kV ranges should be used for an upper GI series using barium sulfate

110 to 125 kV

3
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how much barium is typically given to a 3 to 10 year old during an upper GI series

6 to 12 ounces

4
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protective aprons worn during fluoroscopy must process at least ____ mm lead equivalency (Pb/Eq)

0.5

5
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<p>part v refers to the </p>

part v refers to the

laryngopharynx

6
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<p>which part of the stomach is labeled 9 </p>

which part of the stomach is labeled 9

angular notch

7
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“chole-” is a prefix for terms pertaining to the

bile

8
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what structure indicates the junction between the duodenum and jejunum

suspensory muscle of the duodenum

9
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most esophagograms begin with the patient

erect

10
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what is the most common radiographic procedure performed to diagnose GERD

endoscopy

11
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the act of swallowing is termed

deglutition

12
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the act of swallowing is termed

deglutition

13
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where is cholecystokinin produced

duodena mucosa

14
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which of the following conditions involves dilated veins in the distal aspect of the esophagus, which in some cases can lead to internal bleeding

esophageal varices

15
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a stomach with the duodenal bulb at the level of L1-L2 would be found in a ______ patient

sthenic

16
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which of the following upper GI projections and/or positions will best fill the body and pylorus with barium

PA

17
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which of the conditions is an example of GERD

esophageal reflux

18
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when using computed radiography, inadequate kV or mAs will produce a _____ image

mottled

19
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which aspect of the gastrointestinal tract is primarily responsible for the absorption of digestive end products along with water, vitamins, and minerals

small intestine

20
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saliva contains certain enzymes to begin the digestion of

starch

21
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what is the primary purpose of the membranous folds located within the cystic duct

prevents distention or collapse of the cystic duct

22
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what type of solution is formed when barium is mixed with water

colloidal suspension

23
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patient preparation for an adult upper GI series includes

NPO 8 hours before the procedure

24
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radiographic examination of the biliary ducts only is termed

cholangiography

25
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which aspect of the stomach is attached to the duodenum

pyloris

26
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the liver performs more than 100 different functions

true

27
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<p>which biliary structure is labeled 4 </p>

which biliary structure is labeled 4

cystic duct

28
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which of the following positions is not normally considered to be part of the esophagogram basic routine

AP

29
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what is the classification of barium sulfate as a contrast media

radiopaque

30
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CR centering for an esophagogram should be to the vertebral level of

T5-6

31
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why would a patient undergo valsalva maneuver during an esophagogram

to demonstrate possible esophageal reflux

32
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which of the following statements is true about barium sulfate

it rarely produces an allergic reaction

33
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the liver secretes approximately _____ mL of bile per day

800 to 1000

34
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achalasia is generally defined as

motor disorder of the esophagus

35
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only 5% of all ulcers lead to bowel perforation

true

36
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what is an older term for the hepatopancreatic sphincter

sphincter of oddi

37
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the esophagus is located ______ to the larynx

posterior

38
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a patient comes to radiology with a history of a gastric ulcer. which of the following procedures would be most diagnostic to demonstrate this lesion

double-contrast upper GI series

39
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A patient comes to radiology for an upper GI series. Her clinical history indicates that there may be a tumor posterior to the stomach. Which one of the following projections and/or positions will best demonstrate this condition

right lateral

40
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sodium bicarbonate is often used as a negative contrast medium during an upper GI series

false

41
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the opening between the stomach and esophagus is termed the

esophagogastric junction

42
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<p>part ii refers to the </p>

part ii refers to the

soft palate

43
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the RAO position of the esophagus is preferred over the LAO because it

increase the visibility of the esophagus between the vertebrae and heart

44
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what type of contrast media is ideal for demonstrating a diverticulum within the stomach

double-contrast barium/negative contrast agent

45
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digital fluoroscopy has distinct advantages but produces a slightly higher patient dose as compared with conventional fluoroscopy

true

46
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which of the following patient care concerns would prevent the use of an oral, water-soluble contrast medium

the patient is sensitive to iodine

47
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research suggests that peptic ulcers may be caused by

bacteria

48
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which of the following devices reduces scatter exposure during fluoroscopy from the fluoroscopy tube

bucky slot cover

49
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which of the following is not one of the cardinal principles of radiation protection

intensity

50
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gastritis is defined as inflammation of the

stomach

51
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A radiograph taken during an upper GI series demonstrates poor visibility of the gastric mucosa. The following factors were used: 80 kV, 30 mAs, and 1/40-second exposure time. Barium sulfate was used during the procedure. Which of the following factors needs to be modified during the repeat exposure

increased kV (decrease mAs as needed)

52
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which specific part of the pancreas is adjacent to the c-loop of the duodenum

head

53
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a large outpouching of the proximal esophagus above the upper esophageal sphincter is termed

zenker diverticulum

54
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<p>which part of the stomach is labeled 3 </p>

which part of the stomach is labeled 3

cardiac notch

55
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which one of the following cardinal principles of radiation protection is most effective in reducing the dose to the technologist during fluoroscopy

distance

56
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what is the term for the longitudinal mucosal folds found within the stomach

rugae

57
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where is bile formed

liver

58
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lipids (fats) are broken down into fatty acids and glycerol as they are digested and absorbed by the

small bowel only

59
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<p>part iii refers to the </p>

part iii refers to the

nasopharynx

60
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the liver is divided into _____ major and minor lobes

4

61
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the liver is located primarily in the _____ of the abdomen

RUQ

62
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no cassettes are required for imaging with a digital fluoroscopy system

true

63
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which of the following imaging modalities is an alternative to an esophagogram for detecting esophageal varices

sonography

64
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which of the following imaging modalities is ideal for demonstrating signs of barrett esophagus

nuclear medicine

65
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which of the following functions are performed by the gallbladder

all of the above

66
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which term describes the outer, lateral border of the stomach

greater curvature

67
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which of the following procedures will not demonstrate possible esophageal reflux

reverse trendelenburg method

68
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A patient comes to radiology for an upper GI series. The patient has a clinical history of hiatal hernia. Which of the following positions may be helpful in demonstrating this condition

AP trendelenburg position

69
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hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is the most common form of intestinal obstruction found in infants

true

70
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toward which aspect(s) of the stomach will barium gravitate with the patient in a prone position

body and pylorus

71
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<p>which part of the stomach is labeled 2 </p>

which part of the stomach is labeled 2

cardiac antrum

72
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gastric emptying studies are performed using

radionuclides

73
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other than the esophagogram, what imaging modality is performed to diagnose barrett’s esophagus

nuclear medicine

74
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which structure is labeled 6

left hepatic duct

75
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<p>part i refers </p>

part i refers

nasal cavity

76
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which aspect of the gallbladder is located most posterior within the abdomen

neck

77
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<p>part ix refers to the </p>

part ix refers to the

epiglottis

78
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which two forces or processes propel food down the esophagus

peristalsis and gravity

79
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duodenal ulcers are rarely malignant

true

80
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which of the following definitions would describe a bezoar

mass of undigested material

81
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in 80% of all individuals, the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct unite before entering the duodenum

false

82
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<p>which part of the stomach is labeled 6 </p>

which part of the stomach is labeled 6

pyloric antrum

83
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patient preparation for an esophagogram includes NPO _____ before the procedure

none of the above; patient preparation is not needed as long as an upper GI series is not scheduled to follow

84
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<p>which aspect of the gallbladder is labeled 1</p>

which aspect of the gallbladder is labeled 1

fundus

85
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what is a primary function of cholecystokinin

stimulates the gallbladder to contract

86
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the aortic arch and the ____ create a normal indentation seen along the lateral border of the esophagus

left primary bronchus

87
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which division of the duodenum contains the duodenal bulb or cap

first (superior)

88
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which of the following technical factors will best enhance a digital image taken during an upper GI series

use of wedge filter

89
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what is an older term for the pancreatic duct

duct of wirsung

90
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what is a potential risk associated with the use of water-soluble contrast agents, especially for geriatric patients

dehydration and renal impairment due to osmotic effects.

91
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during an upper GI series, the “halo” sign appears in the duodenum. which of the following conditions will produce this radiographic sign

ulcer

92
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which of the following is not a main subdivision of the stomach

cardium

93
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a high and transverse stomach would be found in a _____ patient

hypersthenic

94
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digital fluoroscopy does not require the use of an image intensifier

true

95
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once food enters the stomach and is mixed with gastric secretions, it is termed

chyme

96
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<p>part iv refers to the </p>

part iv refers to the

oropharynx

97
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the main function of bile is to

emulsify fats

98
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<p>part vii refers to the </p>

part vii refers to the

trachea

99
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how much obliquity is required for the RAO position for the esophagus

35 to 40 degrees

100
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a patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of HPS. which of the following imaging modalities will best demonstrate this condition

ultrasound