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What is the pinna and its function?
Funnel-shaped part of the ear that collects sound and directs it to the tympanic membrane via the external ear canal.
Describe the external ear canal and its features.
Shape: L-shaped (short vertical outer section, longer horizontal inner section)
Glands: Lined with apocrine (ceruminous) and sebaceous glands
Examination: Complete view requires an otoscope
What is the middle ear function, structure, and connection?
Function: Amplifies vibrations from the external ear and transmits them to the inner ear
Structure: Air-filled tympanic cavity, 3 auditory ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes), and tympanic membrane
Connection: Linked to the pharynx by the Eustachian tube, which maintains normal middle ear pressure
Where is the inner ear located and what structures are involved?
Location: Inside the petrous part of the temporal bone
Structures:
Cochlea – hearing
Vestibule – balance
Three semicircular canals – balance and spatial orientation
What are the functions of the cochlea, vestibule, and semicircular canals, and which nerve supplies them?
Cochlea: Contains nerves that transmit electrical impulses for hearing
Vestibule & semicircular canals: Maintain balance and equilibrium
Nerve supply: Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) transmits sound and balance information to the brain
What are the two main types of deafness?
Neurologic/Sensorineural: Inner ear, auditory nerve, or brain abnormalities
Conduction: Pinna, ear canal, tympanic membrane, auditory ossicles, or middle ear issues (e.g., wax, infections)
What are the most common forms of deafness?
Inherited congenital sensorineural
Acquired later-onset sensorineural (e.g., ototoxicity)
Acquired later-onset conductive (e.g., chronic otitis externa/media)
Which animals have higher incidence of congenital deafness?
White-haired, blue-eyed cats
Many dog breeds (sensorineural deafness; avoid using for breeding)
What are common acquired causes of deafness?
Ear canal occlusion or middle/inner ear destruction
Trauma to petrous temporal bone
Loud noises
Demyelinating conditions
Ototoxic drugs (e.g., aminoglycosides)
Cochlear degeneration in older dogs
What are common congenital causes of deafness?
Toxic or viral damage to the developing fetus
Merle or white coat colors
How is deafness diagnosed in animals?
History: Not responding to commands, wrong direction when called, excessive sleeping
Otic exam: Check ear canal, tympanic membrane, signs of infection or obstruction
Neurological exam: Evaluate cranial nerves
Radiography: Assess middle/inner ear structures, temporal bone
BAER test: Brainstem Auditory Evoked Response detects electrical activity in cochlea and auditory pathways
What factors affect the prognosis of deafness?
Cause of deafness (congenital, acquired, sensorineural, conductive)
Progression of the disease
Time of diagnosis (earlier is better)
Ability to correct the underlying problem (e.g., treat infection, remove obstruction)
How can insects and parasites affect the pinna?
Cause redness, swelling, and pruritus
Damage is from direct bites or hypersensitivity reactions
Examples: fly strike, sarcoptic mange, demodectic mange
What immune-mediated diseases can affect the pinna?
Examples: Pemphigus, Atopy, Food allergy
Diagnosis: Confirmed via biopsy of primary lesions
How does frostbite affect the pinna and how is it treated?
Location: Poorly insulated areas like ear tips
Signs: Pain, swelling, redness, possible tissue sloughing
Treatment: Gentle warming and supportive care
What are common pinna skin disorders?
Seborrhoea/Dermatosis: Oily skin at ear edges or ear edge skin disease
Trauma
Tumours: Squamous cell carcinoma, mast cell tumor, histiocytoma, melanoma
What are primary causes of otitis externa (OE)?
Factors that cause disease in a normal ear and change the ear environment, allowing secondary infections:
Allergy
Autoimmune (e.g., pemphigus)
Endocrine disorders
Epithelialization disorders
Foreign bodies
Immune-mediated (e.g., drug reactions)
Parasites
Viral infections
What are secondary causes of otitis externa?
Factors that cause disease in an already abnormal ear:
Bacteria
Fungi/Yeast overgrowth
Medication reactions
Overcleaning
What are predisposing and perpetuating factors in otitis externa?
Predisposing factors: Present before disease develops, e.g., ear conformation, excessive moisture, prior otitis media, treatment effects
Perpetuating factors: Occur as a result of inflammation, e.g., ear canal edema, tympanic membrane changes (dilated/ruptured)
How is otitis externa diagnosed?
History: Include dermatologic history
Physical exam
Otoscopic exam: May require sedation
Cytology: Identify organisms
Cocci: Staph or Strep
Rods: Pseudomonas aeruginosa, E. coli, Proteus mirabilis
Yeast: Malassezia pachydermatis
What are additional diagnostic tools for otitis externa?
Microbial culture and sensitivity – identifies pathogens and effective antibiotics
Histopathology – evaluates underlying tissue changes
Imaging (Radiography, CT, MRI) – assesses middle/inner ear involvement or chronic disease
How is otitis externa treated?
Ear cleaning – remove debris and discharge
Antibiotics
Topical: Broad-spectrum, sometimes with glucocorticoids
Systemic: Based on cytology and/or culture & sensitivity (e.g., cephalexin for cocci, fluoroquinolones for rods)
Systemic glucocorticoids: For severe inflammation
Antifungals: Topical or systemic (e.g., clotrimazole, nystatin, thiabendazole, ketoconazole, itraconazole)
How are ticks, mites, and chronic ear infections managed in otitis externa?
Acaricides: Treat ticks and mites
Systemic medications: Used for chronic infections or suspected otitis media
Ear cleansing caution: If tympanic membrane might be ruptured, use saline or Tris-EDTA instead of harsher cleaners
What is the maintenance therapy for otitis externa?
Ear cleaning: As needed, usually 1–2 times per week
Hair management: Clip hairs in ear canal only if they cause problems
Keep ears dry to prevent recurrence
What can happen if otitis media is left untreated?
It can progress to otitis interna (OI)
What are the clinical signs of otitis media (OM)?
Behavioral: Head shaking, tilting or rotating head toward affected side, scratching affected ear
Neurologic: Facial nerve paralysis (ear/lip droop, collapse of nostril)
Autonomic signs: ± Horner’s syndrome (miosis, ptosis, enophthalmos, 3rd eyelid prolapse)
What are the clinical signs and complications of otitis interna (OI)?
Vestibulocochlear dysfunction: Hearing loss, head tilt, circling, falling toward affected side, general incoordination
Severe complications: Infection can extend → meningitis, meningoencephalitis, or abscess formation
How is otitis media (OM) diagnosed?
Otoscopic exam: Bulging, discoloured, or ruptured tympanic membrane
Imaging:
Radiography: Osseous changes in tympanic bulla, fluid in tympanic cavity
CT or MRI for detailed assessment
Note: Always check both ears
How common is otitis media (OM) in chronic otitis externa cases?
Occurs in >50% of chronic otitis externa cases
>70% of these cases have an intact tympanic membrane
How is chronic or refractory otitis media (OM) treated?
Systemic antibiotics
Acaricides (if parasites involved)
Treat underlying otitis externa (OE)
Myringotomy – drain and flush middle ear
Bulla osteotomy / Total ear canal ablation – for severe or unresponsive cases
What is important about ear canal tumors in dogs?
Benign vs malignant: More likely benign in dogs
Prognosis: Invasion into tympanic bulla or surrounding tissues → poorer prognosis
What are the clinical signs of ear canal tumors?
Otic discharge
Head shaking or scratching
Aural haematomas
Deafness
Vestibular signs (head tilt, circling)
Facial nerve palsy/paralysis, ± Horner’s syndrome
What are common ear tumors in dogs?
Sebaceous gland tumor
Mast cell tumor
Histiocytoma
Ceruminous gland adenoma/adenocarcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)
Hemangiosarcoma
Melanocytic tumors
Basal cell tumors
What are common ear tumors in cats?
Nasopharyngeal polyps
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)
Ceruminous gland adenocarcinomas
How are ear tumors typically treated?
Surgical excision – main treatment for most benign and malignant ear tumors
What are the key steps in eye examination?
History – onset, duration, discharge, vision changes, trauma, systemic disease
Restraint – gentle handling; sedation if needed for painful or fractious animals
Equipment – ophthalmoscope, pen torch/bright light, fluorescein stain, tonometer, slit lamp (if available)
What anesthetics may be used for eye examination?
Xylocaine (lidocaine) – local anesthetic for corneal/conjunctival procedures
Rompun (xylazine) – systemic sedation, may help in uncooperative animals
Proparacaine hydrochloride ophthalmic solution – topical eye anesthetic for diagnostic procedures
How is the auriculopalpebral nerve block performed in horses and what is it for?
Purpose: Blocks motor innervation to orbicularis oculi, preventing blinking → allows examination or surgery of the eye/eyelid.
Technique: Inject local anesthetic subcutaneously over the auriculopalpebral nerve (runs over zygomatic arch, just cranial to the base of the ear).
Effect: Temporary paralysis of eyelid closure without affecting sensation of the cornea.
When does an eye exam begin?
As soon as the animal enters the room – observe behavior, posture, and vision responses.
What are the four tests for vision?
Menace response – learned blinking response; only in older animals.
Obstacle test – place objects in the pathway, call the animal to see if it avoids them.
Cotton ball test – drop a cotton ball from above to check reaction.
Placement test – place objects at varied heights and observe paw placement/reaction.
What are the external observations in an eye exam?
Check eye symmetry, discharge, eyelid margins, and lumps/bumps.
How do you test for infection in the third eyelid?
Swab for culture and sensitivity.
Cytology via eye scraping using topical anesthetic.
How is dry eye (Keratoconjunctivitis Sicca, KCS) tested in dogs?
Schirmer tear test – measures tear production; compare to normal reference values.
How are corneal issues assessed?
Opacity, depressions, lacerations, scratches – use fluorescein dye.
Stroma – hydrophilic layer between epithelium and endothelium absorbs dye, revealing damage.
What is the normal pupil shape in different species?
Dog: round
Cat: vertical slit
Horse/Cattle (large animals): rectangular with pupillary masses (corpora nigra)
What are pupillary masses (corpora nigra)?
Dark masses on the pupil margin in horses and cattle; help regulate light entry and reduce glare.
What should you check in the lens during an eye exam?
Look for opacity (cataracts), luxation, or subluxation.
When should pupil dilation be avoided?
If increased intraocular pressure (glaucoma) is suspected.
How do you check eye pressure?
Use tonometry tests, e.g., Tonopen or Schirmer tonometry.
What are the three main eye tests for small animals?
1. Schirmer test – measures tear production (dry eye).
2. Intraocular pressure (tonometry) – checks for glaucoma.
3. Menace response – tests vision and learned blink reflex.
What is Tonovet used for?
Measures intraocular pressure (tonometry) to check for glaucoma.
How is Tonovet used?
Place probe gently on the cornea after calibration, usually without topical anesthesia. Follow manufacturer directions for accuracy.
What is PLR?
Pupillary light reflex – checks if pupils constrict in response to light.
What are common pupil-dilating agents?
Atropine and Tropicamide – used to dilate pupils for eye exams.
Difference between direct and indirect ophthalmoscope?
Direct ophthalmoscope: anatomically correct view, high magnification, clinician must be close, can be difficult with glasses.
Indirect ophthalmoscope: upside-down/back-to-front image, lower magnification, but shows entire fundus.
What structures can be viewed behind the eye during ophthalmoscopy?
Optic nerve, tapetal fundus, retinal vessels
How does the optic nerve head and tapetum appear in different animals?
Dog: Normal optic nerve head, tapetum present
Cat: Brightest tapetum
Horse: Non-tapetal fundus
What is the order of a complete eye exam?
History & light source use
Adnexa & anterior segment (focal light)
Conjunctival/corneal culture
Schirmer Tear Test (before liquids)
Tonometry (intraocular pressure)
Pupil dilation (if safe)
Conjunctival/corneal cytology (with topical anesthetic)
Evaluation of posterior nictitans
Lens & fundus examination
Fluorescein stain (last—blocks view if done earlier)
Does the PLR (pupillary light reflex) involve the visual cortex?
No. The PLR bypasses the visual cortex and is a reflex mediated entirely by the midbrain.
What is the parasympathetic pathway of the pupillary light reflex?
Light stimulus → detected by retinal photoreceptors (rods & cones).
Signal travels via optic nerve (CN II) to the pretectal nucleus in the midbrain.
Pretectal nucleus sends signals bilaterally to the Edinger-Westphal nuclei (parasympathetic).
Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers travel via oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the ciliary ganglion.
Postganglionic fibers innervate the sphincter pupillae muscle, causing pupil constriction.
Where are light signals first detected in the eye?
By retinal photoreceptors (rods & cones).
Through which nerve do light signals travel to the brain?
Optic nerve (CN II) to the pretectal nucleus in the midbrain.
Which nucleus sends signals bilaterally to the Edinger-Westphal nuclei?
Pretectal nucleus.
Which nerve carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary ganglion?
Oculomotor nerve (CN III).
What causes the pupil to constrict in the PLR?
Postganglionic fibers from the ciliary ganglion innervate the sphincter pupillae muscle.