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65 Terms

1
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What is the pinna and its function?

Funnel-shaped part of the ear that collects sound and directs it to the tympanic membrane via the external ear canal.

2
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Describe the external ear canal and its features.

  • Shape: L-shaped (short vertical outer section, longer horizontal inner section)

  • Glands: Lined with apocrine (ceruminous) and sebaceous glands

  • Examination: Complete view requires an otoscope

3
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What is the middle ear function, structure, and connection?

  • Function: Amplifies vibrations from the external ear and transmits them to the inner ear

  • Structure: Air-filled tympanic cavity, 3 auditory ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes), and tympanic membrane

  • Connection: Linked to the pharynx by the Eustachian tube, which maintains normal middle ear pressure

4
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Where is the inner ear located and what structures are involved?

  • Location: Inside the petrous part of the temporal bone

  • Structures:

    • Cochlea – hearing

    • Vestibule – balance

    • Three semicircular canals – balance and spatial orientation

5
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What are the functions of the cochlea, vestibule, and semicircular canals, and which nerve supplies them?

  • Cochlea: Contains nerves that transmit electrical impulses for hearing

  • Vestibule & semicircular canals: Maintain balance and equilibrium

  • Nerve supply: Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) transmits sound and balance information to the brain

6
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What are the two main types of deafness?

  • Neurologic/Sensorineural: Inner ear, auditory nerve, or brain abnormalities

  • Conduction: Pinna, ear canal, tympanic membrane, auditory ossicles, or middle ear issues (e.g., wax, infections)

7
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What are the most common forms of deafness?

  • Inherited congenital sensorineural

  • Acquired later-onset sensorineural (e.g., ototoxicity)

  • Acquired later-onset conductive (e.g., chronic otitis externa/media)

8
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Which animals have higher incidence of congenital deafness?

  • White-haired, blue-eyed cats

  • Many dog breeds (sensorineural deafness; avoid using for breeding)

9
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What are common acquired causes of deafness?

  • Ear canal occlusion or middle/inner ear destruction

  • Trauma to petrous temporal bone

  • Loud noises

  • Demyelinating conditions

  • Ototoxic drugs (e.g., aminoglycosides)

  • Cochlear degeneration in older dogs

10
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What are common congenital causes of deafness?

  • Toxic or viral damage to the developing fetus

  • Merle or white coat colors

11
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How is deafness diagnosed in animals?

  • History: Not responding to commands, wrong direction when called, excessive sleeping

  • Otic exam: Check ear canal, tympanic membrane, signs of infection or obstruction

  • Neurological exam: Evaluate cranial nerves

  • Radiography: Assess middle/inner ear structures, temporal bone

  • BAER test: Brainstem Auditory Evoked Response detects electrical activity in cochlea and auditory pathways

12
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What factors affect the prognosis of deafness?

  • Cause of deafness (congenital, acquired, sensorineural, conductive)

  • Progression of the disease

  • Time of diagnosis (earlier is better)

  • Ability to correct the underlying problem (e.g., treat infection, remove obstruction)

13
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How can insects and parasites affect the pinna?

  • Cause redness, swelling, and pruritus

  • Damage is from direct bites or hypersensitivity reactions

  • Examples: fly strike, sarcoptic mange, demodectic mange

14
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What immune-mediated diseases can affect the pinna?

  • Examples: Pemphigus, Atopy, Food allergy

  • Diagnosis: Confirmed via biopsy of primary lesions

15
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How does frostbite affect the pinna and how is it treated?

  • Location: Poorly insulated areas like ear tips

  • Signs: Pain, swelling, redness, possible tissue sloughing

  • Treatment: Gentle warming and supportive care

16
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What are common pinna skin disorders?

  • Seborrhoea/Dermatosis: Oily skin at ear edges or ear edge skin disease

  • Trauma

  • Tumours: Squamous cell carcinoma, mast cell tumor, histiocytoma, melanoma

17
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What are primary causes of otitis externa (OE)?

Factors that cause disease in a normal ear and change the ear environment, allowing secondary infections:

  • Allergy

  • Autoimmune (e.g., pemphigus)

  • Endocrine disorders

  • Epithelialization disorders

  • Foreign bodies

  • Immune-mediated (e.g., drug reactions)

  • Parasites

  • Viral infections

18
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What are secondary causes of otitis externa?

Factors that cause disease in an already abnormal ear:

  • Bacteria

  • Fungi/Yeast overgrowth

  • Medication reactions

  • Overcleaning

19
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What are predisposing and perpetuating factors in otitis externa?

  • Predisposing factors: Present before disease develops, e.g., ear conformation, excessive moisture, prior otitis media, treatment effects

  • Perpetuating factors: Occur as a result of inflammation, e.g., ear canal edema, tympanic membrane changes (dilated/ruptured)

20
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How is otitis externa diagnosed?

  • History: Include dermatologic history

  • Physical exam

  • Otoscopic exam: May require sedation

  • Cytology: Identify organisms

    • Cocci: Staph or Strep

    • Rods: Pseudomonas aeruginosa, E. coli, Proteus mirabilis

    • Yeast: Malassezia pachydermatis

21
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What are additional diagnostic tools for otitis externa?

  • Microbial culture and sensitivity – identifies pathogens and effective antibiotics

  • Histopathology – evaluates underlying tissue changes

  • Imaging (Radiography, CT, MRI) – assesses middle/inner ear involvement or chronic disease

22
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How is otitis externa treated?

  • Ear cleaning – remove debris and discharge

  • Antibiotics

    • Topical: Broad-spectrum, sometimes with glucocorticoids

    • Systemic: Based on cytology and/or culture & sensitivity (e.g., cephalexin for cocci, fluoroquinolones for rods)

  • Systemic glucocorticoids: For severe inflammation

  • Antifungals: Topical or systemic (e.g., clotrimazole, nystatin, thiabendazole, ketoconazole, itraconazole)

23
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How are ticks, mites, and chronic ear infections managed in otitis externa?

  • Acaricides: Treat ticks and mites

  • Systemic medications: Used for chronic infections or suspected otitis media

  • Ear cleansing caution: If tympanic membrane might be ruptured, use saline or Tris-EDTA instead of harsher cleaners

24
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What is the maintenance therapy for otitis externa?

  • Ear cleaning: As needed, usually 1–2 times per week

  • Hair management: Clip hairs in ear canal only if they cause problems

  • Keep ears dry to prevent recurrence

25
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What can happen if otitis media is left untreated?

It can progress to otitis interna (OI)

26
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What are the clinical signs of otitis media (OM)?

  • Behavioral: Head shaking, tilting or rotating head toward affected side, scratching affected ear

  • Neurologic: Facial nerve paralysis (ear/lip droop, collapse of nostril)

  • Autonomic signs: ± Horner’s syndrome (miosis, ptosis, enophthalmos, 3rd eyelid prolapse)

27
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What are the clinical signs and complications of otitis interna (OI)?

  • Vestibulocochlear dysfunction: Hearing loss, head tilt, circling, falling toward affected side, general incoordination

  • Severe complications: Infection can extend → meningitis, meningoencephalitis, or abscess formation

28
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How is otitis media (OM) diagnosed?

  • Otoscopic exam: Bulging, discoloured, or ruptured tympanic membrane

  • Imaging:

    • Radiography: Osseous changes in tympanic bulla, fluid in tympanic cavity

    • CT or MRI for detailed assessment

  • Note: Always check both ears

29
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How common is otitis media (OM) in chronic otitis externa cases?

  • Occurs in >50% of chronic otitis externa cases

  • >70% of these cases have an intact tympanic membrane

30
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How is chronic or refractory otitis media (OM) treated?

  • Systemic antibiotics

  • Acaricides (if parasites involved)

  • Treat underlying otitis externa (OE)

  • Myringotomy – drain and flush middle ear

  • Bulla osteotomy / Total ear canal ablation – for severe or unresponsive cases

31
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What is important about ear canal tumors in dogs?

  • Benign vs malignant: More likely benign in dogs

  • Prognosis: Invasion into tympanic bulla or surrounding tissues → poorer prognosis

32
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What are the clinical signs of ear canal tumors?

  • Otic discharge

  • Head shaking or scratching

  • Aural haematomas

  • Deafness

  • Vestibular signs (head tilt, circling)

  • Facial nerve palsy/paralysis, ± Horner’s syndrome

33
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What are common ear tumors in dogs?

  • Sebaceous gland tumor

  • Mast cell tumor

  • Histiocytoma

  • Ceruminous gland adenoma/adenocarcinoma

  • Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

  • Hemangiosarcoma

  • Melanocytic tumors

  • Basal cell tumors

34
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What are common ear tumors in cats?

  • Nasopharyngeal polyps

  • Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

  • Ceruminous gland adenocarcinomas

35
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How are ear tumors typically treated?

Surgical excision – main treatment for most benign and malignant ear tumors

36
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What are the key steps in eye examination?

  • History – onset, duration, discharge, vision changes, trauma, systemic disease

  • Restraint – gentle handling; sedation if needed for painful or fractious animals

  • Equipment – ophthalmoscope, pen torch/bright light, fluorescein stain, tonometer, slit lamp (if available)

37
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What anesthetics may be used for eye examination?

  • Xylocaine (lidocaine) – local anesthetic for corneal/conjunctival procedures

  • Rompun (xylazine) – systemic sedation, may help in uncooperative animals

  • Proparacaine hydrochloride ophthalmic solution – topical eye anesthetic for diagnostic procedures

38
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How is the auriculopalpebral nerve block performed in horses and what is it for?

  • Purpose: Blocks motor innervation to orbicularis oculi, preventing blinking → allows examination or surgery of the eye/eyelid.

  • Technique: Inject local anesthetic subcutaneously over the auriculopalpebral nerve (runs over zygomatic arch, just cranial to the base of the ear).

  • Effect: Temporary paralysis of eyelid closure without affecting sensation of the cornea.

39
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When does an eye exam begin?

As soon as the animal enters the room – observe behavior, posture, and vision responses.

40
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What are the four tests for vision?

  1. Menace response – learned blinking response; only in older animals.

  2. Obstacle test – place objects in the pathway, call the animal to see if it avoids them.

  3. Cotton ball test – drop a cotton ball from above to check reaction.

  4. Placement test – place objects at varied heights and observe paw placement/reaction.


41
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What are the external observations in an eye exam?

Check eye symmetry, discharge, eyelid margins, and lumps/bumps.

42
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How do you test for infection in the third eyelid?

  • Swab for culture and sensitivity.

  • Cytology via eye scraping using topical anesthetic.

43
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How is dry eye (Keratoconjunctivitis Sicca, KCS) tested in dogs?

Schirmer tear test – measures tear production; compare to normal reference values.

44
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How are corneal issues assessed?

  • Opacity, depressions, lacerations, scratches – use fluorescein dye.

  • Stroma – hydrophilic layer between epithelium and endothelium absorbs dye, revealing damage.

45
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What is the normal pupil shape in different species?

  • Dog: round

  • Cat: vertical slit

  • Horse/Cattle (large animals): rectangular with pupillary masses (corpora nigra)

46
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What are pupillary masses (corpora nigra)?

Dark masses on the pupil margin in horses and cattle; help regulate light entry and reduce glare.

47
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What should you check in the lens during an eye exam?

Look for opacity (cataracts), luxation, or subluxation.

48
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When should pupil dilation be avoided?

If increased intraocular pressure (glaucoma) is suspected.

49
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How do you check eye pressure?

Use tonometry tests, e.g., Tonopen or Schirmer tonometry.

50
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What are the three main eye tests for small animals?

1. Schirmer test – measures tear production (dry eye).
2. Intraocular pressure (tonometry) – checks for glaucoma.
3. Menace response – tests vision and learned blink reflex.

51
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What is Tonovet used for?

Measures intraocular pressure (tonometry) to check for glaucoma.

52
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How is Tonovet used?

Place probe gently on the cornea after calibration, usually without topical anesthesia. Follow manufacturer directions for accuracy.

53
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What is PLR?

Pupillary light reflex – checks if pupils constrict in response to light.

54
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What are common pupil-dilating agents?

Atropine and Tropicamide – used to dilate pupils for eye exams.

55
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Difference between direct and indirect ophthalmoscope?

  • Direct ophthalmoscope: anatomically correct view, high magnification, clinician must be close, can be difficult with glasses.

  • Indirect ophthalmoscope: upside-down/back-to-front image, lower magnification, but shows entire fundus.

56
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What structures can be viewed behind the eye during ophthalmoscopy?

Optic nerve, tapetal fundus, retinal vessels

57
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How does the optic nerve head and tapetum appear in different animals?

  • Dog: Normal optic nerve head, tapetum present

  • Cat: Brightest tapetum

  • Horse: Non-tapetal fundus

58
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What is the order of a complete eye exam?

  • History & light source use

  • Adnexa & anterior segment (focal light)

  • Conjunctival/corneal culture

  • Schirmer Tear Test (before liquids)

  • Tonometry (intraocular pressure)

  • Pupil dilation (if safe)

  • Conjunctival/corneal cytology (with topical anesthetic)

  • Evaluation of posterior nictitans

  • Lens & fundus examination

  • Fluorescein stain (last—blocks view if done earlier)

59
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Does the PLR (pupillary light reflex) involve the visual cortex?

No. The PLR bypasses the visual cortex and is a reflex mediated entirely by the midbrain.

60
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What is the parasympathetic pathway of the pupillary light reflex?

  1. Light stimulus → detected by retinal photoreceptors (rods & cones).

  2. Signal travels via optic nerve (CN II) to the pretectal nucleus in the midbrain.

  3. Pretectal nucleus sends signals bilaterally to the Edinger-Westphal nuclei (parasympathetic).

  4. Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers travel via oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the ciliary ganglion.

  5. Postganglionic fibers innervate the sphincter pupillae muscle, causing pupil constriction.

61
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Where are light signals first detected in the eye?

By retinal photoreceptors (rods & cones).

62
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Through which nerve do light signals travel to the brain?

Optic nerve (CN II) to the pretectal nucleus in the midbrain.

63
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Which nucleus sends signals bilaterally to the Edinger-Westphal nuclei?

Pretectal nucleus.

64
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Which nerve carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary ganglion?

Oculomotor nerve (CN III).

65
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What causes the pupil to constrict in the PLR?

Postganglionic fibers from the ciliary ganglion innervate the sphincter pupillae muscle.