Rheum E1 -Metabolic & Hormonal diseases

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85 Terms

1

Which has priority of calcium: serum or bone?

Serum

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2

What is Calcium essential for?

muscle contraction, nerve function, blood clotting, etc

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3

What is Osteomalacia?

Bone softening from excessive resorption of Ca from extracellular bone matrix and/or lack of vitamin D

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4

Bone contains ___% of calcium in the body

99%

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5

What decreases Calcium absorption?

low levels of vit D, diet low in Ca, GI disease (malabsorption), diets high in phosphates, phytates, oxalates, & heavy metals

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6

How is the majority of Calcium excreted?

bowels

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7

Daily calcium requirements - child

800-1,000 mg

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8

Daily calcium requirements - adult

1,000-1,200 mg

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9

Daily calcium requirements -pregnancy, peri/post menopausal, pts w/ fxs

1,500 mg

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10

Daily calcium requirements - breast feeding

2,000 mg

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11

Daily calcium requirements - adolescents (growth)

1,000-1,300

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12

Where is the majority of Phosphate excreted?

kidney

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13

What is the daily phosphate requirement?

800-1,200 mg

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14

PTH favors (osteoblasts/osteoclasts)

Osteoclasts

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15

PTH causes Ca & PO4 to move into the (serum/bone)

Serum

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16

What is the primary regulator of extracellular calcium that is released in response to low serum calcium?

PTH

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17

What is the action of osteocytes in rapid response to hypocalcemia?

Release Ca stored in lacunar spaces

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18

What effect does PTH have on the kidney?

PO4 diuresis, Resorption of Ca, Make activated Vit. D

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19

What effect does PTH have on the gut?

Increased permeability to Ca by stimulating kidney to make Vit. D

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20

What does the liver metabolize vitamin D into?

25(OH) Vitamin D2 (storage levels)

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21

The kidney metabolizes 25(OH) Vitamin D2 into ___________ or ____________

Cholecalciferol or Ergocalciferol

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22

Which is more potent/active: Cholecalciferol or Ergocalciferol

Cholecalciferol

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23

Where is calcitonin secreted from?

Thyroid (C cells)

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24

Calcitonin inhibits (osteoblasts/osteoclasts)

Osteoclasts

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25

How does insulin affect bone metabolism?

helps w/ bone mineralization, skeletal growth, bone remodeling

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26

What is the effect of insufficient GH?

dwarfism

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27

What is the result of excessive GH?

gigantism or acromegaly

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28

Which is necessary for bone formation and inadequate amounts results in bone loss?

Estrogen

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29

What is the effect of excess glucocorticoids?

impaired skeletal growth, dec bone formation & bone mass

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30

What is the MC form of osteoporosis?

Primary, Type I (postmenopausal)

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31

Which form of Osteoporosis is due to senescence?

Primary, Type II (senile)

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32

What type of Osteoporosis is due to disease, genetics, drugs, etc.?

Secondary

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33

What are risk factors for an Osteoporotic fx?

Caucasian/Asian, postmenopausal, hx of fx, low body wt, current smoking, ETOH, old age, use of corticosteroids of 7.5mg for 3+ months

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34

What are the significant RF for men for Osteoporosis?

undx low testosterone levels, declining testosterone AND estrogen levels w/ age, ETOH, smoking

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35

What is the MC type of fx associated with osteoporosis?

Vertebral

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36

What medical conditions increase risk for osteoporosis?

insulin-dependent DM, malabsorption syndromes, RA, IBS, hyperparathyroidism, hypogonadism

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37

What drugs reduce bone mass in adults?

glucocorticoids, adrenocorticotropin, anticonvulsants, blood thinners, cytotoxic drugs, Depo-provera, thyroid suppression

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38

What is the most serious consequence of osteoporosis?

Hip fx

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39

What is the Gold standard diagnostic test to detect osteoporosis?

Bone mineral density or DEXA

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40

What diagnostic study can be used in osteoporosis to predict chances of future fx?

FRAX

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41

What diagnostic study can be used in osteoporosis to assess rate of bone loss and/or monitor effects of treatment?

Bone turnover markers

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42

Normal BMD T-score:

> -1.0 SD

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43

Low BMD T-score (osteopenia):

Between -1.0 and -2.5 SDs

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44

BMD T-score for osteoporosis:

-2.5 or lower

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45

At what age should all women have a BMD test?

65+

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46

At what age should all men age have a BMD test?

70+

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47

When should a BMD test be done regardless of age?

presence of fragility fxs (hip, vertebral), loss of ht > 1.5 in, younger women/men w/ 1+ RF

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48

Where does the FRAX measure BMD at?

femoral neck

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49

What does the FRAX predict?

10 yr probability of overall skeletal fx (>20%) and hip fx (>3%) as high risk in pts

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50

T/F: Bone turnover markers are NOT recommended for diagnosis of osteoporosis

True- they are recommended for monitoring of tx

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51

What can help lower risk of Osteoporosis?

adequate intake of Ca & vit D, wt/resistance training, avoid tobacco and excessive alcohol, strategies for fall prevention

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52

Which vitamin is essential for absorption of Ca from the GI tract?

vit D

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53

What medication is 1st line prevention/tx for osteoporosis?

Bisphosphonates

(-dronate, -dronic)

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54

What medications for Osteoporosis are anti-resorptives?

Estrogen/HRT, Bisphosphonates, SERMS, Calcitonin, Denosumba (prolia)

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55

What medications for Osteoporosis are anabolics?

PTH, PTHrP analogue, Romosozumab (-mabs)

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56

Which class of osteoporosis medications cause apoptosis of osteoclasts?

Bisphosphonates

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57

What are the SE of bisphosphonates?

*these are uncommon!

Irritation/burning of esophagus, abd/msk pain, nausea, osteonecrosis, pathologic fxs w/ long term use

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58

What medication is used as a last resort for osteoporosis?

*when pts cannot tolerate other meds

Calcitonin (Miacalcin)

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59

What are adverse effects of Calcitonin?

nasal irritation, backache, bloody nose, HA

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60

Which SERM medication is approved for prevention & treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis?

Raloxifene (Evista)

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61

What are adverse effects of Raloxifene (Evista)?

Hot flashes, DVT, Leg cramps

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62

Which Osteoporosis medication is an anabolic agent that up-regulates osteoblasts?

PTH, Teriparatide (Forteo), Abaloparatide (Tymlos)

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63

Which osteoporosis medications have a black-box warning for osteosarcoma findings in animals?

*so far none reported in humans

PTH, Teriparatide (Forteo), Abaloparatide (Tymlos)

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64

What are SE of PTH medications?

nausea, leg cramps, dizziness

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65

PTH medication is limited to use of ____

2 yrs

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66

Which Osteoporosis medication acts as a RANKL inhibitor?

Denosumab (Prolia)

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67

Which -MAB binds sclerostin, blocking the Wynt pathway resulting in up-regulation of osteoblasts?

Romosozumab (Evenity)

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68

Which osteoporosis medication has a black box warning for CV disease, such as stroke/MI, thrombosis, and death?

Romosozumab (Evenity)

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69

What is Paget's disease?

excessive bone resorption and formation with abnormal remodeling of bone → weak, deformed, enlarged, vascularized (woven bone)

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70

Paget's disease commonly affects what demographic?

M > F, 50+ (inc in those 65-74)

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71

What is a complication of Paget’s?

osteosarcoma risk

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72

What are the cardinal features of Paget's disease?

Enlarged skull, Tinnitus, Bowed legs

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73

What are the 1st line tests for dx Paget's disease?

Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase, Plain films

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74

What would you see on an Xray of Paget's disease?

abn skeletal survey: "Salt and pepper" pattern

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75

What dx test determines the extent of bone involvement in Paget’s?

total body bone scan

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76

What is the 1st line/main treatment for Paget's disease?

Bisphosphonates (alendronate)

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77

Calcium is stored as ________ embedded in & on the collagen fibers of bone

Hydroxyapatite crystals

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78

What facilitates the absorption of calcium?

PTH & Vitamin D

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79

Phosphate absorption is (increased/decreased) by a low calcium diet or high levels of vitamin D

Increased

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80

If PTH stimulus continues, ______ are signaled to resorb bone

Osteoclasts

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81

What serum level test is the test of choice to determine in a patient is vitamin D deficient?

25(OH) vitamin D2

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82

What is the biologically active form of vitamin D?

Calcitriol

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83

What is the MOA of Anti-resorptive agents?

Kill osteoclasts

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84

What is the MOA of anabolic agents?

Upregulate osteoblasts

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85

What is the main function of sclerostin?

Stop (inhibit) bone formation

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