Rheum E1 -Metabolic & Hormonal diseases

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Last updated 8:54 PM on 2/7/25
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85 Terms

1
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Which has priority of calcium: serum or bone?

Serum

2
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What is Calcium essential for?

muscle contraction, nerve function, blood clotting, etc

3
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What is Osteomalacia?

Bone softening from excessive resorption of Ca from extracellular bone matrix and/or lack of vitamin D

4
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Bone contains ___% of calcium in the body

99%

5
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What decreases Calcium absorption?

low levels of vit D, diet low in Ca, GI disease (malabsorption), diets high in phosphates, phytates, oxalates, & heavy metals

6
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How is the majority of Calcium excreted?

bowels

7
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Daily calcium requirements - child

800-1,000 mg

8
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Daily calcium requirements - adult

1,000-1,200 mg

9
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Daily calcium requirements -pregnancy, peri/post menopausal, pts w/ fxs

1,500 mg

10
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Daily calcium requirements - breast feeding

2,000 mg

11
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Daily calcium requirements - adolescents (growth)

1,000-1,300

12
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Where is the majority of Phosphate excreted?

kidney

13
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What is the daily phosphate requirement?

800-1,200 mg

14
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PTH favors (osteoblasts/osteoclasts)

Osteoclasts

15
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PTH causes Ca & PO4 to move into the (serum/bone)

Serum

16
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What is the primary regulator of extracellular calcium that is released in response to low serum calcium?

PTH

17
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What is the action of osteocytes in rapid response to hypocalcemia?

Release Ca stored in lacunar spaces

18
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What effect does PTH have on the kidney?

PO4 diuresis, Resorption of Ca, Make activated Vit. D

19
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What effect does PTH have on the gut?

Increased permeability to Ca by stimulating kidney to make Vit. D

20
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What does the liver metabolize vitamin D into?

25(OH) Vitamin D2 (storage levels)

21
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The kidney metabolizes 25(OH) Vitamin D2 into ___________ or ____________

Cholecalciferol or Ergocalciferol

22
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Which is more potent/active: Cholecalciferol or Ergocalciferol

Cholecalciferol

23
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Where is calcitonin secreted from?

Thyroid (C cells)

24
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Calcitonin inhibits (osteoblasts/osteoclasts)

Osteoclasts

25
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How does insulin affect bone metabolism?

helps w/ bone mineralization, skeletal growth, bone remodeling

26
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What is the effect of insufficient GH?

dwarfism

27
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What is the result of excessive GH?

gigantism or acromegaly

28
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Which is necessary for bone formation and inadequate amounts results in bone loss?

Estrogen

29
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What is the effect of excess glucocorticoids?

impaired skeletal growth, dec bone formation & bone mass

30
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What is the MC form of osteoporosis?

Primary, Type I (postmenopausal)

31
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Which form of Osteoporosis is due to senescence?

Primary, Type II (senile)

32
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What type of Osteoporosis is due to disease, genetics, drugs, etc.?

Secondary

33
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What are risk factors for an Osteoporotic fx?

Caucasian/Asian, postmenopausal, hx of fx, low body wt, current smoking, ETOH, old age, use of corticosteroids of 7.5mg for 3+ months

34
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What are the significant RF for men for Osteoporosis?

undx low testosterone levels, declining testosterone AND estrogen levels w/ age, ETOH, smoking

35
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What is the MC type of fx associated with osteoporosis?

Vertebral

36
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What medical conditions increase risk for osteoporosis?

insulin-dependent DM, malabsorption syndromes, RA, IBS, hyperparathyroidism, hypogonadism

37
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What drugs reduce bone mass in adults?

glucocorticoids, adrenocorticotropin, anticonvulsants, blood thinners, cytotoxic drugs, Depo-provera, thyroid suppression

38
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What is the most serious consequence of osteoporosis?

Hip fx

39
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What is the Gold standard diagnostic test to detect osteoporosis?

Bone mineral density or DEXA

40
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What diagnostic study can be used in osteoporosis to predict chances of future fx?

FRAX

41
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What diagnostic study can be used in osteoporosis to assess rate of bone loss and/or monitor effects of treatment?

Bone turnover markers

42
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Normal BMD T-score:

> -1.0 SD

43
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Low BMD T-score (osteopenia):

Between -1.0 and -2.5 SDs

44
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BMD T-score for osteoporosis:

-2.5 or lower

45
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At what age should all women have a BMD test?

65+

46
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At what age should all men age have a BMD test?

70+

47
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When should a BMD test be done regardless of age?

presence of fragility fxs (hip, vertebral), loss of ht > 1.5 in, younger women/men w/ 1+ RF

48
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Where does the FRAX measure BMD at?

femoral neck

49
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What does the FRAX predict?

10 yr probability of overall skeletal fx (>20%) and hip fx (>3%) as high risk in pts

50
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T/F: Bone turnover markers are NOT recommended for diagnosis of osteoporosis

True- they are recommended for monitoring of tx

51
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What can help lower risk of Osteoporosis?

adequate intake of Ca & vit D, wt/resistance training, avoid tobacco and excessive alcohol, strategies for fall prevention

52
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Which vitamin is essential for absorption of Ca from the GI tract?

vit D

53
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What medication is 1st line prevention/tx for osteoporosis?

Bisphosphonates

(-dronate, -dronic)

54
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What medications for Osteoporosis are anti-resorptives?

Estrogen/HRT, Bisphosphonates, SERMS, Calcitonin, Denosumba (prolia)

55
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What medications for Osteoporosis are anabolics?

PTH, PTHrP analogue, Romosozumab (-mabs)

56
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Which class of osteoporosis medications cause apoptosis of osteoclasts?

Bisphosphonates

57
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What are the SE of bisphosphonates?

*these are uncommon!

Irritation/burning of esophagus, abd/msk pain, nausea, osteonecrosis, pathologic fxs w/ long term use

58
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What medication is used as a last resort for osteoporosis?

*when pts cannot tolerate other meds

Calcitonin (Miacalcin)

59
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What are adverse effects of Calcitonin?

nasal irritation, backache, bloody nose, HA

60
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Which SERM medication is approved for prevention & treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis?

Raloxifene (Evista)

61
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What are adverse effects of Raloxifene (Evista)?

Hot flashes, DVT, Leg cramps

62
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Which Osteoporosis medication is an anabolic agent that up-regulates osteoblasts?

PTH, Teriparatide (Forteo), Abaloparatide (Tymlos)

63
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Which osteoporosis medications have a black-box warning for osteosarcoma findings in animals?

*so far none reported in humans

PTH, Teriparatide (Forteo), Abaloparatide (Tymlos)

64
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What are SE of PTH medications?

nausea, leg cramps, dizziness

65
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PTH medication is limited to use of ____

2 yrs

66
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Which Osteoporosis medication acts as a RANKL inhibitor?

Denosumab (Prolia)

67
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Which -MAB binds sclerostin, blocking the Wynt pathway resulting in up-regulation of osteoblasts?

Romosozumab (Evenity)

68
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Which osteoporosis medication has a black box warning for CV disease, such as stroke/MI, thrombosis, and death?

Romosozumab (Evenity)

69
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What is Paget's disease?

excessive bone resorption and formation with abnormal remodeling of bone → weak, deformed, enlarged, vascularized (woven bone)

70
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Paget's disease commonly affects what demographic?

M > F, 50+ (inc in those 65-74)

71
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What is a complication of Paget’s?

osteosarcoma risk

72
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What are the cardinal features of Paget's disease?

Enlarged skull, Tinnitus, Bowed legs

73
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What are the 1st line tests for dx Paget's disease?

Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase, Plain films

74
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What would you see on an Xray of Paget's disease?

abn skeletal survey: "Salt and pepper" pattern

75
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What dx test determines the extent of bone involvement in Paget’s?

total body bone scan

76
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What is the 1st line/main treatment for Paget's disease?

Bisphosphonates (alendronate)

77
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Calcium is stored as ________ embedded in & on the collagen fibers of bone

Hydroxyapatite crystals

78
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What facilitates the absorption of calcium?

PTH & Vitamin D

79
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Phosphate absorption is (increased/decreased) by a low calcium diet or high levels of vitamin D

Increased

80
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If PTH stimulus continues, ______ are signaled to resorb bone

Osteoclasts

81
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What serum level test is the test of choice to determine in a patient is vitamin D deficient?

25(OH) vitamin D2

82
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What is the biologically active form of vitamin D?

Calcitriol

83
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What is the MOA of Anti-resorptive agents?

Kill osteoclasts

84
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What is the MOA of anabolic agents?

Upregulate osteoblasts

85
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What is the main function of sclerostin?

Stop (inhibit) bone formation