EMT-105 Comprehensive Study Guide Flashcards

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This set of 500 flashcards covers Chapters 9-16 of the EMT-105 curriculum, including Airway Management, Respiration & Ventilation, Scene Size-Up, Primary & Secondary Assessments, Vital Signs, Communication & Documentation, General Pharmacology, and Medical/Trauma Assessment Protocols. It also reinforces high-yield mnemonics like SAMPLE, OPQRST, AVPU, DCAP-BTLS, and PEARL. Each flashcard is presented in a question-and-answer format, designed to help EMT students review key concepts and prepare for exams by focusing on definitions, procedures, values, and indications.

Last updated 7:09 PM on 9/29/25
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739 Terms

1
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What are the components of the upper airway?

Nose, mouth, pharynx, epiglottis

2
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Which part of the upper airway is responsible for filtering and warming air?

Nose

3
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Which part of the upper airway is a common passage for both food and air?

Pharynx

4
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What flap of cartilage protects the trachea during swallowing?

Epiglottis

5
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What are the components of the lower airway?

Larynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli

6
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Which part of the lower airway is also known as the voice box?

Larynx

7
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What is the main windpipe that extends from the larynx to the bronchi?

Trachea

8
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What are the main air passages that branch off the trachea into the lungs?

Bronchi

9
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What are the tiny air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange occurs?

Alveoli

10
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How does a pediatric airway differ from an adult airway?

Larger tongue, smaller airway, neutral sniffing position

11
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What is a characteristic of a pediatric tongue compared to an adult's?

It is larger

12
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What is a characteristic of a pediatric airway in terms of size?

It is smaller

13
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What is the ideal position for opening the airway in a pediatric patient?

Neutral sniffing position

14
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What are common causes of airway obstruction?

Tongue, swelling, vomit, blood

15
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What sound indicates partial airway obstruction, often by the tongue?

Snoring

16
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What sound indicates fluid in the airway?

Gurgling

17
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What high-pitched sound indicates severe upper airway obstruction, typically in the larynx or trachea?

Stridor

18
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What whistling sound indicates lower airway obstruction, often due to bronchoconstriction?

Wheezing

19
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What maneuver is used to open the airway in a patient without suspected spinal trauma?

Head-tilt chin-lift

20
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When is the head-tilt chin-lift maneuver contraindicated?

With suspected trauma

21
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What maneuver is used to open the airway in a patient with suspected spinal trauma?

Jaw-thrust

22
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What airway adjunct is used for unresponsive patients without a gag reflex?

Oropharyngeal Airway (OPA)

23
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When should an OPA not be used?

If the patient has an intact gag reflex

24
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What airway adjunct is used for patients with an intact gag reflex or facial trauma?

Nasopharyngeal Airway (NPA)

25
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What is the primary difference between ventilation and respiration?

Ventilation is the mechanical movement of air, while respiration is the exchange of gases

26
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What is ventilation?

The mechanical movement of air into and out of the lungs

27
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What is respiration?

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide at the cellular level

28
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What is oxygenation?

The process of delivering oxygen to the blood

29
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What are signs of inadequate breathing?

Cyanosis, altered mental status (AMS), accessory muscle use

30
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What is cyanosis a sign of?

Inadequate breathing/oxygenation

31
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What does Altered Mental Status (AMS) indicate in the context of breathing?

Possible inadequate breathing

32
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What suggests a patient is working hard to breathe?

Accessory muscle use

33
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What device is commonly used for artificial ventilation?

Bag-Valve Mask (BVM)

34
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What is the recommended oxygen flow rate for a BVM with a reservoir?

15 LPM

35
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What is the recommended ventilation rate for an adult using a BVM?

10–12 bpm

36
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What is the recommended ventilation rate for a child using a BVM?

12–20 bpm

37
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What oxygen device delivers 1–6 LPM?

Nasal Cannula

38
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What oxygen device delivers approximately 24–44% oxygen?

Nasal Cannula

39
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What is the typical oxygen flow rate range for a Nasal Cannula?

1–6 LPM

40
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What is the typical oxygen concentration delivered by a Nasal Cannula?

24–44%

41
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What oxygen device delivers 10–15 LPM?

Non-rebreather mask (NRB)

42
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What oxygen device delivers approximately 90% oxygen?

Non-rebreather mask (NRB)

43
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What is the typical oxygen flow rate for a Non-rebreather mask (NRB)?

10–15 LPM

44
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What is the typical oxygen concentration delivered by a Non-rebreather mask (NRB)?

~90%

45
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What oxygen device delivers 15 LPM?

Bag-Valve Mask (BVM)

46
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What oxygen device delivers approximately 100% oxygen?

Bag-Valve Mask (BVM)

47
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What is the typical oxygen flow rate for a Bag-Valve Mask (BVM)?

15 LPM

48
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What is the typical oxygen concentration delivered by a Bag-Valve Mask (BVM) with a reservoir?

~100%

49
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What are the steps of scene size-up?

BSI, Scene Safety, MOI/NOI, Patient Count, Resources, Spinal Precautions

50
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What is the first step in scene size-up for an EMT?

Body Substance Isolation (BSI)

51
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What is the second most important step in scene size-up after BSI?

Scene Safety

52
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What does MOI/NOI stand for in scene size-up?

Mechanism of Injury / Nature of Illness

53
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What information should be gathered regarding the number of patients?

Patient Count

54
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What should an EMT assess regarding additional help needed at a scene?

Resources

55
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What preventative measure should EMTs consider early in a trauma scene?

Spinal Precautions

56
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What are common mechanisms of injury in Motor Vehicle Collisions (MVCs)?

Up & Over, Down & Under, T-bone, Rollover, Ejection

57
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What MVC mechanism involves the patient going over the steering wheel or dashboard?

Up & Over

58
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What MVC mechanism involves the patient sliding under the dashboard?

Down & Under

59
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What type of MVC impact is associated with lateral forces?

T-bone (side impact)

60
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What type of MVC can cause multiple impacts and high risk of injury?

Rollover

61
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What significantly increases the risk of severe injury and death in an MVC?

Ejection

62
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What fall height is considered significant for an adult?

20 ft

63
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What fall height is considered significant for a child?

10 ft or 2–3 times their height

64
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What is the primary goal of the primary assessment?

Identify and correct life threats

65
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What are the steps of the Primary Assessment?

General Impression, AVPU, CC, ABC/CAB, Transport Priority

66
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What is the initial visual assessment of the patient?

General Impression

67
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What mnemonic is used to assess a patient's level of consciousness?

AVPU

68
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What does CC stand for in the primary assessment?

Chief Complaint

69
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What sequence is followed for assessing airway, breathing, and circulation in medical patients?

ABC

70
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What sequence is followed for assessing circulation, airway, and breathing in trauma patients with severe bleeding?

CAB (or XABC)

71
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What decision is made at the end of the primary assessment based on patient condition?

Transport Priority

72
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What are the immediate life threats to identify and correct during the primary assessment?

Exsanguination, Airway, Respiratory failure, Shock

73
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What is the most immediate life threat to address according to the trauma protocol (XABC)?

Exsanguination (severe bleeding)

74
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What is a major life threat related to the patient's ability to breathe?

Airway obstruction or compromise

75
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What is a life threat where the lungs cannot adequately perform gas exchange?

Respiratory failure

76
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What physiological state, characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion, is considered a life threat?

Shock

77
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What is the normal adult pulse rate range?

60–100 bpm

78
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What is the normal adult respiratory rate range?

12–20 breaths per minute (bpm)

79
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What is the normal adult systolic blood pressure range?

90–140 mmHg

80
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What is the normal adult SpO2 range?

95–100%

81
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What are the ideal characteristics for patient skin?

Pink, warm, dry

82
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What does PEARL stand for when assessing pupils?

Pupils Equal And Reactive to Light

83
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Where is the pulse typically assessed in a conscious adult patient?

Radial pulse

84
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Where is the pulse typically assessed in an unconscious adult patient?

Carotid pulse

85
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What scale is used for neurological assessment to determine level of consciousness?

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

86
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What type of assessment is performed for a stable patient in the secondary assessment?

Focused exam, SAMPLE, OPQRST

87
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What type of assessment is performed for an unstable patient in the secondary assessment?

Rapid Trauma Exam, head-to-toe, repeat vitals every 5 mins

88
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What mnemonic is used to check for injuries during a physical exam?

DCAP-BTLS

89
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What does the 'D' in DCAP-BTLS stand for?

Deformities

90
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What does the 'C' in DCAP-BTLS stand for?

Contusions (bruises)

91
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What does the 'A' in DCAP-BTLS stand for?

Abrasions (scrapes)

92
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What does the 'P' in DCAP-BTLS stand for?

Punctures

93
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What does the 'B' in DCAP-BTLS stand for?

Burns

94
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What does the 'T' in DCAP-BTLS stand for?

Tenderness

95
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What does the 'L' in DCAP-BTLS stand for?

Lacerations (cuts)

96
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What does the 'S' in DCAP-BTLS stand for?

Swelling

97
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What information should be included in a radio report to receiving facility?

Age, Sex, Chief Complaint (CC), Vitals, Interventions

98
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What patient demographic information is included in a radio report?

Age and Sex

99
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What key information about the patient's condition is included in a radio report?

Chief Complaint (CC)

100
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What physiological measurements are included in a radio report?

Vitals

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