Pharm Final

science concerned with properties of drugs and their effects on the living system

Pharmacology

branch of pharmacology the deals directly with effectiveness and safety of drugs in a clinical setting

Clinical Pharmacology

is the amount of drug given at one time

dose

is the amount given, the route, the interval between, and the duration of therapy.

dosage

Ability of a drug to control/cure an illness

Efficacy

Lowest concentration that produces the desired effect

Minimum effective concentration

Refers to the dose effective in 50% of population

ED50

Drug concentration associated with efficacy and not toxicity

Therapeutic range

Amount of drug needed to achieve specific biological effect and seldom of any medical significance

Potency

Which is the proprietary name?

Albon

Type \_______ reaction is an adverse event that is idiosyncratic, unpredictable, and often nondose-dependent

B

Type \_______ reaction is an adverse event that can be anticipated based on known mechanism of drug, and it is usually dose dependent

A

Substance naturally produced in the body and it induces a physiologic action

Endogenous agonist

Substance that blocks the action of an agonist

Antagonist

Substance that binds to the same site as an agonist but doesn't activate it. Therefore, blocking the agonist action. This is used to prevent activity of drugs and to reverse effects of drugs

Competitive antagonist

Substance that binds to more than one type of receptor and causes an effect at one receptor and no effect or less pronounced effect at another

Partial agonist

Substance that binds to one or more types of receptors and causes certain effects

Pure agonist

Substance the have agonist activity at one receptor site while simultaneously producing an antagonist activity at another site

Agonist-antagonist

Drug are primarily metabolized by the\_____?

Liver

T or F: Because of the "First pass effect" a large portion of orally administered meds are inactivated by the liver before entering circulation. This is why oral doses are smaller than injectable

False

A dose of four tenths of mg would be written how?

0.4 mg

T or F: All ethical products sold through DVM are illegal to sale

False

regulates pesticides and topical flea/tick products

EPA

regulates oral or parenterally administered pesticides

FDA

regulates veterinary biologics/vaccines

USDA

agency that enforces provisions of the Controlled Substances Act of 1970 and subsequent amendments

DEA

Refills for a non-controlled prescription drug may be authorized by the veterinarian for a maximum of \__________ from date on the original prescription

12 months

There is a \_________ refill limit for a controlled prescription drugs

6 months

T or F: OTC product is used extra-label in animals, it must not be treated as a prescription drug in accordance with the provisions of AMDUCA.

False

If there is a veterinary product available, you have to choose it over a human product for nonfood animals?

No

Which of the following applies for a compounded product?

All of the above

abuse may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence

Schedule II

drugs with the lowest potential for abuse

Schedule V

high potential for abuse

Schedule I

less potential for abuse

Schedule III

limited physical or psychological dependence potential

Schedule IV

The DEA requires that Controlled Substance Records be kept for

2 years

T or F: When Humane Societies obtain DEA license, the vet responsible can use the same vet DEA registration for their clinic and shelter.

False

Outdated, damaged, or contaminated CS must be disposed of, and we must follow federal regulations and filing

DEA form 41

To order Schedule II drugs file a

DEA form 222

T or F: Mistakes on a DEA form can be corrected only with liquid paper.

False

\_________ can NOT be refilled

Schedule II

During repolarization, \____ moves out of the cell

Potassium (K)

What clinical signs is expected after administering glycopyrrolate?

Increased Heartrate

A owner is prescribed nitroglycerin cream for their pet. What advice can you give owner?

Wear gloves, apply to pinna of ear and layer of skin w/o hair, do NOT pet area with cream

T or F: Drug that block alpha-1 receptors, decrease arterial blood pressures

True

T or F: Drugs that imitates acetylcholine would slow heartrate.

True

What is the drug of choice for control of premature ventricular contractions and ventricular arrhythmias?

Lidocaine

Client calls in regards to their 2 year old cat presenting with diarrhea, vomiting, and subtle behavior changes. The pet is on Digoxin. What is your suggestion?

Bring in immediately

What is the drug of choice for accumulating in cardiac muscles and cause residual affect after infusion?

Dobutamine

In cat, facial dermatitis is a side effect of

Spironolactone

The main purpose of vasopressors

Increase blood pressure when fluid therapy is insufficient

Feline patient presents to the clinic for high blood pressure issues. The doctor put the patient on a antihypertensive medication. A week later the owner reports that the patient has been vomiting and having diarrhea for the past 24 hours. Which antihypertensive medication is the patient most likely on?

Amlodipine

Name a disease or medical condition that bronchodilators are used to treat

Feline asthma, Equine COPD, Canine chronic bronchitis

What medication route is used to give terbutaline?

SQ

T or F: Decongestants are rarely used in animals

True

This class of respiratory drugs are designed to break mucous

Mucolytics

\_______ is the drug of choice emetic (to induce vomiting) in cats

Xylazine

Maropitant is a NK-1 receptor antagonist antiemetic. What is the trade name?

Cerenia

What is the generic name for Zofran?

Ondansetron

According to the article "Assessment of Dexmedetomidine," two reversal medication for this drug are?

Atipamezole hydrochloride and Yohimbine

According to the article "Assessment of Dexmedetomidine," what has no effect on inducing emesis in cats?

Hydrogen peroxide

Name one of the five ways the vomiting reflex is influenced:

-Stimulation of neurons from emetic center

-Stimulation of chemoreceptor trigger zone (CRTZ)

-Distention or irritation of GI contents

-Inner/ear balance

-Emotional stimulus or intracranial trauma or pressure

A canine patient presents to the clinic having ate a reese's peanut butter cup. What drug will you give to induce vomiting?

Apomorphine

A owner calls concerned because her dog has had dark stool for 2 days. She is worried it is due to digested blood. The dog has been on bismuth subsalicylate for 2 days. How do you response the client?

These side effects are expected of patients on pepto-bismol. It is normal. If medication is slowed down and stopped the stool will go back to normal.

Which drug is considered an antacid/antiulcer drug?

Nizatidine

Which of the following antidiarrheal should not be used in cats?

Bismuth subsalicylate

Hypothyroidism

Levothryoxine

Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's disease)

Mitotane and trilostane

Hyperthyroidism

I-131 and methimazole

Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's Disease)

DOCP (percortin) and Fludrocortison (Flurinef)

Diabetes mellitus

Glipizide in cats

Insulinomas

Diazoxide and glucocorticoids

T or F: When performing Therapeutic Drug Monitoring, you should use a serum separator tube. This will ensure that the serum and packed cells remain separate and will give more accurate results

False

T or F: When dealing with hypoadrenocorticism, we do not give prednisolone until after an ACTH stimulation test is done because it will react with the cortisol on the assay

True

This drug is used in the treatment of hypocalcemia. It does NOT require PTH for activation and is the preferred form of Vitamin D in hypoparathyroidism.

Dihydrotachysterol

For treating diabetes mellitus, which form of therapy is the better choice?

Insulin

T or F: When preparing insulin administration, shake the vial to mix insulin because rolling it will create air bubbles.

False

This should NOT be given to patients in insulin shock

Table sugar

T or F: When giving insulin to a patient, it does not matter if a U40 or U100 syringe is used

False

Referred to as "mismating shot" and prevents embryo implantation in dogs within 72 hrs of mating

Estradiol cypionate injection

Given to female dogs to either prevent estrus (before heat) or shorten estrus (after 1st sign of heat)

Megesterol acetate (Ovaban)

Oral liquid to suppress estrus in mares

Altrenogest (Regu Mate)

Lyses corpus luteum on ovary, forcing animal to begin estrous

Prostaglandin F2 alpha

Used to cause milk-let down; also causes uterine contractions during birth and for the next 2 days

Oxytocin

\_________ bladder detrusor atony

Hypocontractile

\_________ bladder urge incontinence

Hypercontractile

The most common cause of incontinence in adult females dogs

Urethral incompetence

Phenylpropanolamine is effective in \__________ of female dogs with urethral incontinence.

85-90%

Indicated for detrusor instability

Oxybutynin

Smooth muscle relaxation. It is used mainly for it effect in reducing internal urethral sphincter tone in dogs and cats when urethral sphincter hypertonus presents.

Phenoxybenzamine

Used to increase bladder contractility; increased tone of detrusor muscle of the bladder; used to treat "spinal cord bladders."

Bethanechol

Increases urethral closure pressure by increasing density and responsiveness of alphaadrenergic receptors in urethral smooth muscles

Diethylstilbestrol (DES)

In regards to the anti-inflammatory effects NSAIDS work by blocking \____________, an enzyme needed for the production of prostaglandins and thromboxanes

cyclo- oxygenase

In regards to the anti-inflammatory effects steroids work by blocking

Phospholipase

\__________ is the most common side effect of NSAIDS

GI Ulceration