Med Chem Unit 6

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Last updated 1:07 AM on 3/29/26
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80 Terms

1
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Define 'xenobiotics' as described in the context of drug metabolism.

Exogenous substances to which humans are exposed, such as ingested chemicals, inhaled smoke, or topical cosmetics.

2
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What is the primary physiological purpose of drug metabolism?

To protect the body from potentially harmful chemicals by converting them into hydrophilic metabolites for excretion.

3
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Which branch of pharmacology describes the 'dose-concentration relationship' or what the body does to the drug?

Pharmacokinetics (PK).

4
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Which branch of pharmacology describes the 'concentration-effect relationship' or what the drug does to the body?

Pharmacodynamics (PD).

5
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In pharmacokinetics, what is the primary route or mechanism of drug elimination?

Metabolism.

6
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List the four main components of Pharmacokinetics often represented by the acronym ADME.

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, and Excretion.

7
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Which organ is considered the most prominent and primary site of drug metabolism?

The liver.

8
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Which organ is considered the primary site of drug excretion?

The kidney.

9
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Where are drugs or metabolites typically excreted when they pass through the liver into the bile?

Into the intestines (and ultimately the feces).

10
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Besides the liver, name three other tissues that contain drug-metabolizing enzymes.

Intestine, kidneys, and lungs (also brain, plasma, and skin).

11
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What are the two main chemical purposes of drug metabolism regarding drug action?

Inactivation (preventing target interaction) and solubilization (preparing for excretion).

12
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How does metabolism usually affect a drug's ability to interact with its target receptor?

It modifies the chemical structure, often preventing the drug from binding to the target biological molecule.

13
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Term: Prodrug

Definition: An inactive drug that must be metabolized into an active metabolite to exert its pharmacological effect.

14
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Metabolism usually makes a drug more _____, which promotes its removal by the kidneys.

Hydrophilic (or polar).

15
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Term: Bioavailability

Definition: The fraction of an administered dose that reaches the systemic circulation.

16
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Term: Clearance

Definition: A pharmacokinetic parameter describing the relationship between drug concentration and the rate of elimination.

17
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What is 'first-pass metabolism'?

The intestinal and liver metabolism of an orally administered drug that occurs before it reaches systemic circulation.

18
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How do 'inducers' affect drug-metabolizing enzymes compared to 'inhibitors'?

Inducers increase the expression of the enzyme, whereas inhibitors decrease the enzyme's activity.

19
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In a drug-drug interaction, if Drug A inhibits the enzyme that metabolizes Drug B, what happens to the blood concentration of Drug B?

The concentration of Drug B increases.

20
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Why does increasing the polarity of a metabolite promote urinary excretion?

Polar and charged molecules cannot easily cross lipid membranes to be reabsorbed from the renal tubules back into the blood.

21
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What are the three main types of Phase I metabolism reactions?

Oxidation, Reduction, and Hydrolysis.

22
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What is the most common Phase I metabolism reaction?

Oxidation.

23
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Phase II metabolism is also known as _____ reactions.

Conjugation.

24
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What is the most common Phase II metabolism reaction?

Glucuronidation (or glucuronic acid conjugation).

25
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True or False: Phase I metabolism must always occur before Phase II metabolism.

False (Phase II can occur directly if the drug already has the necessary functional groups).

26
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Which transporters facilitate the uptake of glucuronide and sulfate conjugates into renal cells?

Organic Anion Transporters (OATs).

27
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Which transporters facilitate the efflux of conjugates into bile or urine?

Multidrug Resistance-associated Proteins (MRPs) or Breast Cancer Resistance Protein (BCRP).

28
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Why does P-glycoprotein ($Pgp$) NOT play a significant role in transporting glucuronide conjugates?

$Pgp$ has a negatively charged substrate binding pocket, which repels negatively charged conjugates.

29
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What percentage of clinical drugs are estimated to be eliminated primarily by metabolism?

70-80%.

30
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Rank the three routes of drug elimination (Renal, Bile, Metabolism) from most common to least common.

Metabolism > Renal > Bile.

31
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Of the drugs eliminated by metabolism, which enzyme family is responsible for approximately $52.5\%$ of that metabolism?

Cytochrome $P450s$ (CYPs).

32
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What percentage of drugs are eliminated via the renal route without being metabolized first?

20-30%.

33
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Name the three components required for Cytochrome $P450$ catalysis mentioned in the learning objectives.

The CYP enzyme, Heme, and Cytochrome $P450$ reductase.

34
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In the CYP naming convention (e.g., $CYP1A2$), what does the '1' represent?

The genetic family.

35
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In the CYP naming convention (e.g., $CYP1A2$), what does the 'A' represent?

The genetic subfamily.

36
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In the CYP naming convention (e.g., $CYP1A2$), what does the '2' represent?

The specific gene/isoform.

37
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In terms of cellular location, where are CYP enzymes primarily found within the cell?

In the lipid bilayer of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

38
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Besides drug metabolism, what role do CYP enzymes play regarding cholesterol?

They are involved in cholesterol metabolism and the synthesis of steroid hormones.

39
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Which Phase I reaction involves the removal of an alkyl group from a nitrogen atom?

$N$-dealkylation.

40
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Which type of amine (primary, secondary, or tertiary) is most likely to undergo oxidative deamination?

Primary amines.

41
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Which Phase I reaction involves the addition of oxygen to a sulfur atom?

$S$-oxidation.

42
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Which Phase I reaction involves the removal of a halogen (e.g., fluorine, chlorine) from a molecule?

Dehalogenation.

43
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Term: Hydrolysis

Definition: The cleavage of a chemical bond by the addition of water.

44
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Which functional group is generally more susceptible to hydrolysis: esters or amides?

Esters.

45
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What is the significance of hydrolysis regarding a drug's shelf-life?

It affects chemical stability, as drugs containing esters or amides can degrade over time in the presence of moisture.

46
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Identify the two products formed by the hydrolysis of an ester.

A carboxylic acid and an alcohol.

47
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Identify the two products formed by the hydrolysis of an amide.

A carboxylic acid and an amine.

48
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What is the primary transferase enzyme responsible for Phase II glucuronidation?

UDP-glucuronosyl transferase (UGT).

49
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What is the essential cofactor required for glucuronidation reactions catalyzed by UGT?

Uridine diphosphate glucuronic acid (UDPGA).

50
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What is the essential cofactor required for sulfate conjugation catalyzed by Sulfotransferases (SULT)?

3'-phosphoadenosine-5'-phosphosulfate (PAPS).

51
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True or False: Di-glucuronide conjugates (two glucuronic acids on one molecule) are common metabolic products.

False (glucuronidation of one functional group is usually sufficient for excretion).

52
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What is the typical molecular weight threshold for a glucuronide conjugate to be excreted into the bile instead of urine?

Greater than $500$.

53
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At physiological pH, what is the charge of a glucuronic acid conjugate ($pK_a \sim 3$)?

Negatively charged (deprotonated).

54
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Which Phase II reaction is particularly important for drugs containing primary aromatic or aliphatic amines but does NOT increase water solubility?

$N$-acetylation.

55
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Name the enzyme family responsible for $N$-acetylation.

$N$-acetyltransferases (NAT).

56
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Which Phase II enzyme family is involved in the conjugation of glutathione to electrophilic drugs or metabolites?

Glutathione S-transferases (GST).

57
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What is the role of Methyltransferases in drug metabolism?

They catalyze the addition of a methyl group to a drug or metabolite.

58
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List the three types of reactions categorized under Phase I Metabolism.

Oxidation, Reduction, and Hydrolysis.

59
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Which enzyme group follows CYPs as the second most common for clinical drug metabolism, accounting for about $11.7\%$?

UDP-glucuronosyl transferase (UGT).

60
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What is the relationship between tizanidine and ciprofloxacin regarding CYP1A2?

Tizanidine is a substrate of CYP1A2, and ciprofloxacin is a potent inhibitor of CYP1A2.

61
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In the Tizanidine/Ciprofloxacin example, why is co-administration contraindicated?

Inhibition of CYP1A2 by ciprofloxacin leads to toxically high blood concentrations of tizanidine.

62
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Phase I reactions typically involve 'adding or exposing' _____.

Polar functional groups.

63
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True or False: Some drugs are sufficiently water-soluble that they require no metabolism and are excreted unchanged.

True.

64
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Under what condition can a drug undergo Phase II metabolism without needing a Phase I reaction first?

If the drug already contains functional groups that can be directly conjugated (e.g., a hydroxyl or amine group).

65
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Why must glucuronide and sulfate conjugates rely on transporters for excretion?

They are negatively charged and cannot simply diffuse across cell membranes.

66
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What is the primary site of excretion for drug metabolites after they have been made polar by the liver?

The kidneys (urine).

67
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Which Phase I reaction converts an ester into a carboxylic acid and an alcohol?

Ester hydrolysis.

68
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Which Phase I reaction converts an amide into a carboxylic acid and an amine?

Amide hydrolysis.

69
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Explain the naming 'dealkylation' in the context of a metabolite.

It refers to the removal of an alkyl group, with the metabolite named based on the atom the group was removed from (e.g., $N$-dealkylated).

70
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Define 'Oxidation' in the context of drug metabolism.

A reaction that increases the number of carbon-oxygen bonds or decreases the number of carbon-hydrogen bonds.

71
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Which Phase II reaction uses Acetyl-CoA as a likely source of the added group (implied by N-acetylation)?

$N$-acetylation.

72
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List four common Phase II enzymes.

UGT, SULT, NAT, and GST (also Methyltransferases).

73
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What determines the frequency of drug administration in the context of metabolism?

The rate at which a drug is metabolized and eliminated from the body.

74
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How does the 'solubilizing' purpose of metabolism facilitate biliary excretion?

It often involves adding large, polar groups (like glucuronic acid) that transporters recognize for efflux into bile.

75
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What is the role of 'Heme' in CYP enzymes?

It is the iron-containing prosthetic group that acts as the site for oxygen binding and activation during catalysis.

76
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Which Phase I enzyme is responsible for the hydrolysis of Succinylcholine?

Esterase (butyrylcholinesterase).

77
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What characterizes an 'active metabolite'?

A metabolite that retains or possesses pharmacological activity, potentially contributing to the drug's effect or toxicity.

78
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What are the two genetic families of UGT enzymes?

UGT1 and UGT2.

79
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Briefly describe the mechanism of 'base hydrolysis' of an ester.

Hydroxide ($OH^-$) acts as a nucleophile, attacking the carbonyl carbon to displace the alcohol group.

80
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The ability of an enzyme to catalyze 'acid hydrolysis' typically involves providing a _____ to the carbonyl oxygen.

Proton ($H^+$).