Infectious Diseases Exam 1

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Edwin Chadwick contributions:

campaigns for better drainage and airflow for workers in London

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William Farr contributions:

Cholera is more prevalent the closer inhabitants are to the Thames River

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John Snow contributions:

finds cholera cases are clustered around a water pump and removes the pump, decrease in cases after this

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The Great Stink contributions:

Redesign of London’s sewers which protects drinking water from sewage

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Humourism:

the idea that all disease is the result of an imbalance of humors

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Miasma Theory:

the idea that all diseases are spread by bad air in polluted cities

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Pathophysiology of Cholera:

  1. Etiological agent secretes a toxin which splits into several subunits

  2. Subunit A activates a chloride efflux from the intestinal tissues into the lumen

  3. Water follows the chloride ions, causing dehydration and watery diarrhea

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Cholera etiological agent:

Vibro cholerae

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Gold Standard for Cholera diagnosis:

TCBS differential media

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Koch’s Postulates:

Association, Isolation, Inoculation, and Re-Isolation

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Criticisms of Germ Theory:

  1. Diseases become oversimplified

  2. Koch’s Postulates only work well for highly virulent pathogens

  3. Virulence is not a fixed trait

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Makeup of a Virion:

A protein cap and a genome, sometimes an envelope can be included

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Lifecycle of a Virion:

  1. Attachment

  2. Penetration

  3. Uncoating

  4. Biosynthesis

  5. Assembly

  6. Release

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Viruses with a genome of double stranded DNA is classified as ________ in the Baltimore Classification System

Group 1

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Viruses with a genome of single stranded sense (+) DNA is classified as ______ in the Baltimore Classification System

Group 2

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Viruses with a genome of double stranded RNA is classified as ________ in the Baltimore Classification System

Group 3

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Viruses with a genome of single stranded sense (+) RNA is classified as _________ in the Baltimore Classification System

Group 4

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Viruses with a genome of single stranded antisense (-) RNA is classified as _________ in the Baltimore Classification System

Group 5

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Viruses with a genome of single stranded RNA with reverse transcriptase are classifies as _________ in the Baltimore Classification System

Group 6

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Viruses with a genome of double stranded DNA with reverse transcriptase are classifies as _________ in the Baltimore Classification System

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Pathophysiology of HIV/AIDS:

  1. Etiological agent receptor recognizes a host receptor on T-cells and fuses to the cell

  2. RNA genome is reverse transcribed and double stranded DNA is integrated into the host genome

  3. Viral genes are transcribed and translated

  4. Virus is assembled and released, killing the host T-cell

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HIV/AIDS etiological agent:

retrovirus

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Gold Standard for HIV/AIDS detection:

Western Blot method which detects antibodies responsive to HIV

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Treatment of HIV/AIDS:

ART (antiretroviral therapies) which combines three medications from two drug classes

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HIV/AIDS drug treatment classes:

  1. RT inhibitors

  2. Attachment inhibitors

  3. Fusion inhibitors

  4. Protease inhibitors

  5. Integrase inhibitors

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Components to a Bacterial Cell:

plasma membrane, cell wall, and capsule or slime layer

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Salmonellosis Pathophysiology:

  1. Ingested etiological agent invades M cells of the intestine and trigger an inflammatory response

  2. Neutrophils which fight foreign pathogens invade the M cells, allowing water to escape into the lumen of the intestines causing watery diarrhea and dehydration

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Salmonella etiological agent:

Salmonella enterica

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Aspergillosis Pathophysiology:

  1. Etiological agent is inhaled and either no inflammatory response occurs or a dramatic inflammation response occurs

  2. No inflammation leads to an uncontrolled growth of the spores and mycelium

  3. Dramatic inflammation response can permanently damage the lungs

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Aspergillosis etiological agent:

Aspergilla fumigatus

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Aspergillosis treatment:

Azole, an antifungal drug

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Groups of Protozoa:

  1. Sarcodina (amoebas)

  2. Mastigophores (flagellates)

  3. Ciliophorans (ciliates)

  4. Sporozoans (non-motile adult protozoa)

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Lifecycle of Toxoplasmosis:

  1. Environmental Stage- an un-sporulated oocyte matures into a sporozoite. Then defecated by a cat.

  2. Reproductive Stage- the sporozoite matures into a tachyzoite, then a bradyzoite in humans.

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Toxoplasmosis etiological agent:

Toxoplasma gondii

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Helminth phylogenies:

  1. Nematodes (roundworm)

  2. Platyhelminths (flatworm)

  3. Acanthocephalans

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Flatworms can be _________ (tapeworms) or __________ (flukes).

cestodes/trematodes

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Human Hookworm etiological agent:

  1. Necata amercanus

  2. Ancylostoma duodenale

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Human Hookworm life cycle:

  1. Adult worms live in humans and lay eggs which are pooped out.

  2. Eggs hatch in the L-3 phase and grow into the grass, traveling to the top of grass blades and infect human feet.

  3. Foot to gut migration takes 4-6 weeks in which the disease is in the pre-patent period.

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Gold Standard for Diagnosis of Human Hookworm:

Microscopic examination of a fecal sample

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Epidemiological Triad:

Agent of disease, host, environment

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Incubatory period:

time from first exposure to first signs and symptoms

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Latent period:

time between exposure and infectious period

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convalescent carrier:

a carrier who feels better but is still infectious

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sign:

an objective measure (like a fever)

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symptom:

a subjective measure (like a headache)

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reservoir:

a human, animal, or environmental component which supports the agent of infection

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portal of exit:

route by which agent leaves the reservoir

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portal of entry:

route by which the agent enters a susceptible host

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Directly transmissible agents are _________ compared to indirectly transmissible agents.

more fragile

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Mucocilory Escalator:

Cilia in the respiratory tract move upwards and contain mucous to move agents which have been inhaled back to the airway to be swallowed and destroyed by the stomach acid

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Two types of immunity:

  1. Innate

  2. Adaptive

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Steps to nonspecific, innate neutralization:

  1. Pathogen recognition

  2. Phagocytosis

  3. Release of Cytokines and Chemokines

  4. Antigen Presentation to the Adaptive System with Dendrites

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Virus PAMP:

genome

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Bacteria PAMP:

LPS (gram-), LTA, flagella, peptidoglycan (gram+)

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Fungus PAMP:

zymosan, chitin

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Helminth PAMP:

non-uniform secretions or excretions

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Protozoa PAMP:

GPI/glycophosphatidylinositol

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Cells characteristic of Innate Responses:

Macrophages, Neutrophils, Cytokines/Chemokines, Dendritic Cells

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Macrophage Function:

travels from tissues to site of pathogen entry to engulf the pathogen and release cytokines

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Neutrophil Function:

travels from blood to infection site and releases destructive enzymes to kill pathogenic agent

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Cytokine/Chemokine Function:

promotes inflammation by vasodilating blood vessels, attracting circulating immune cells, and activating neutrophils

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Dendritic Cell Function:

link adaptive and innate immune responses, contains PRR’s which recognize PAMPs and activate the dendrite

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Cells characteristic of Innate Responses:

B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes, Dendritic cells

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T effector cell function:

migrate to site of infection and kill infectious agent

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T memory cell function:

protect against secondary infection

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B cell function:

produce antibodies to bind to the antigen

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Negative selection:

lymphocytes with reactivity to self-antigens will be eliminated

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___________ can result in excessive inflammation.

Hypercytokemia

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Bystander Activation:

Activation of T cells in response to cytokine presence rather then to an antigen

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Case:

a lab validated positive test for infection

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Incidence:

the number of cases in a given time period

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Prevalence:

the number of cases at a specific time

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Attack rate:

the proportion of those exposed to an infectious disease that become clinically ill

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Reproductive Rate (R):

the potential for a disease to spread

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Basic reproductive rate (R0):

the average number of individuals directly infected by a single infected person during their entire infectious period when they enter a totally susceptible population

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R0 calculation equation:

R0= attack rate x (number of contacts) x infectious period

OR B x k x D

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R0 < 1 =

disease will disappear in a population

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R0 = 1 =

disease will become endemic

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R0 > 1 =

disease will become an epidemic

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Measles etiological agent:

Measles morbillivirus

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Measles Pathophysiology:

Airborne particles enter the airway and infect dendrites via SLAM receptors. The viral cell cycle occurs and the infected dendrite moves to the lymph nodes where viral particles are released. New particles infect memory cells via SLAM receptors, killing them and infecting respiratory epithelium for exit of the host.

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Koplik Spots:

red bumps in the mouth which are a pathognomic sign of measles

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Measles Detection:

anti-measles virus antibodies in serum

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Treatment of measles:

antibiotics and/or antifungals for superinfections

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Prevention of measles:

vaccination

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Herd Immunity:

the level of immunity in a population which prevents against epidemics

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Formula for determining proportion of population which should be vaccinated to gain herd immunity:

p> 1-(1/R0)

where p is the proportion of the population

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Formula for R:

R=R0 x S

where S is the fraction of the population which is susceptible

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Types of Vaccines:

  1. Live and Attenuated

  2. Whole and Inactivated

  3. Viral Protein Subunit

  4. Virus-like Particle

  5. Viral Vector

  6. Whole Genome'

  7. mRNA

  8. Antigen Presenting Cells

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___________ vaccines are easiest to make.

mRNA

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3 Classes of Diagnostics:

  1. Detection of the agent of agent derived products

  2. Detection of specific immune response

  3. Molecular diagnostics

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The best diagnostics optimize _______, _________,________, and _________.

sensitivity/ specificity/ turnaround time/ required technology

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Sensitivity:

ability of a test to identify the presence if a disease or illness correctly

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Specificity:

ability of a test to identify the absence of a disease or illness accurately