System Analysis (IS 321) Study Guide

System architecture provides the high-level context for systems development, representing a set of foundational decisions that are important and difficult to change after they are initially made.

A) The technical design of system features

B) The detailed planning of the project schedule

C) The high-level, foundational system environment decisions that, once implemented, are hard to change

D) The structure of the user interface screens

C - The high-level, foundational system environment decisions that, once implemented, are hard to change

Which one of the following has the broadest scope?

A) Enterprise architecture

B) Technology architecture

C) Data architecture

D) Application architecture

A - Enterprise architecture - Defines four dimensions: Business, Data, Application, and Technology Architecture

The Open Group Architectural Framework (TOGAF) defines how many dimensions of enterprise architecture?

A) Two

B) Three

C) Four

D) Six

C - Four - Business, Data, Application, and Technology Architecture

Which dimension of TOGAF focuses on the structure of the business?

A) Technology Architecture

B) Application Architecture

C) Data Architecture

D) Business Architecture

D - Business Architecture - Focuses on the business structure

Which dimension describes the structure of an organization's logical and physical data assets, including governance topics like data quality and security?

A) Technology Architecture

B) Data Architecture

C) Application Architecture

D) Business Architecture

B - Data Architecture - Describes the structure of an organization's logical and physical data assets and data management resources

Which one of the following has been the foundational and dominant structured data management technology for several decades?

A) NoSQL databases

B) Relational databases using SQL

C) Data lake technology

D) Hadoop architecture

B - Relational databases using SQL - The dominant structured data management technology

Which dimension addresses the footprints and interrelationships of various applications?

A) Data Architecture

B) Technology Architecture

C) Application Architecture

D) Business Architecture

C - Application Architecture - Addresses the footprints and interrelationships of various applications

What tool is used to manage the application portfolio based on technical condition and business value?

A) FURPS+ model

B) Zachman framework

C) TIME matrix

D) TOGAF framework

C - TIME matrix - Used to manage the application portfolio based on technical condition and business value

In the TIME model, which one of the following reflects a combination that suggests a need to migrate an application?

A) High technical condition - high business value

B) Low technical condition - low business value

C) Low technical condition - high business value

D) High technical condition - low business value

C - Low technical condition - high business value - Suggested action is Migrate

Which architectural dimension involves the high-level categories of technical components, such as servers, operating systems, and network devices?

A) Business Architecture

B) Application Architecture

C) Technology Architecture

D) Data Architecture

C - Technology Architecture - Involves the high-level categories of technical components

Architectural decisions are deeply associated with meeting which type of requirement, which forms the context for functional requirements?

A) User Stories

B) Functional Requirements

C) Nonfunctional Requirements (NFRs)

D) Business Goals

C - Nonfunctional Requirements (NFRs) - Deeply associated with architectural decisions

Which model is often used to categorize Nonfunctional Requirements (NFRs)?

A) TOGAF

B) CRUD

C) FURPS+

D) TIME

C - FURPS+ - Model used to categorize NFRs

A specification stating a service must produce results in less than three minutes relates to which dimension of FURPS+?

A) Supportability

B) Performance

C) Functionality

D) Reliability

B - Performance - Requirement related to service speed

A specification stating a service needs to be available 99.995% of the time relates to which dimension of FURPS+?

A) Supportability

B) Functionality

C) Reliability

D) Security

C - Reliability - Requirement related to system availability

An application integrates all program code into a single unit, using one centralized data store. Which architectural model does the application follow?

A) Service Oriented Architecture

B) Microservices

C) Client/server (Multi-tiered)

D) Monolithic

D - Monolithic - All program code is integrated into a single unit and uses one centralized data store

Which architectural model separates functionality into services that communicate via an Enterprise Service Bus?

A) Service Oriented Architecture

B) Microservices

C) Monolithic

D) IaaS

A - Service Oriented Architecture - Services communicate via an Enterprise Service Bus

Which architectural model consists of multiple small, simple projects (mini-apps), often utilizing decentralized data management?

A) Monolithic

B) Service Oriented Architecture (SOA)

C) Microservices

D) Traditional Architecture

C - Microservices - Consists of multiple small, simple projects (mini-apps), often utilizing decentralized data management

A company gets data processing and storage capacity but must provide its own application platform and applications. Which cloud model is it following?

A) PaaS

B) IaaS

C) Microservices

D) SaaS

B - IaaS - Provides infrastructure like processing power and file storage

Which cloud computing model includes infrastructure (IaaS) plus system software like operating systems and databases?

A) SaaS

B) IaaS

C) PaaS

D) Monolithic

C - PaaS - Includes IaaS plus system software (e.g., operating systems, databases)

Which cloud computing model provides the application software, platform, and underlying infrastructure?

A) IaaS

B) PaaS

C) SaaS

D) SOA

C - SaaS - Includes PaaS plus application software

Which one of the following represents an approach in which each application is bundled together with its system tools, configuration files, and libraries into a container, separated from other containers but still sharing the same host operating system?

A) SaaS

B) Virtualization

C) Containerization

D) Cloud computing

C - Containerization - Bundles an application with its necessary files into a container

Which one of the following statements regarding Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) is correct?

A) VPNs operate only on the organization's own infrastructure.

B) VPNs cannot be used for addressing organizational networking needs beyond a single campus.

C) The reliability and speed of a VPN depends on the performance of the underlying network.

D) VPNs guarantee maximum speed and performance regardless of underlying network conditions.

C - The reliability and speed of a VPN depends on the performance of the underlying network.

Which one of the following networking elements moves packets from a device with a specific numeric address to another device with another specific address in a global addressing space?

A) File Transfer Protocol

B) Hypertext Transfer Protocol

C) Transmission Control Protocol

D) Internet Protocol

D - Internet Protocol - Moves packets between specific numeric addresses

Which one of the following is NOT one of the four typical layers in a multi-tiered client/server model?

A) Presentation layer

B) Data storage layer

C) Business logic layer

D) Data transformation layer

D - Data transformation layer - Not one of the four typical layers in a multi-tiered client/server model

Which type of scaling is likely to be associated with major one-time costs?

A) Neither vertical nor horizontal scaling

B) Horizontal scaling

C) Vertical scaling

D) Both vertical and horizontal scaling

C - Vertical scaling - Associated with major one-time costs

User experience (UX) encompasses utility, desirability, brand experience, and which other key factor?

A) Performance

B) Functionality

C) Usability

D) Reliability

C - Usability - UX encompasses utility, usability, desirability, and brand experience

Usability (ease of use) is measured by effectiveness, user satisfaction, and what third factor?

A) Security

B) Efficiency

C) Performance

D) Supportability

B - Efficiency - Usability is measured by effectiveness, efficiency, and user satisfaction

Which one of the following concepts specifically focuses on minimizing the resources (such as time and human effort) that are needed to achieve a particular goal?

A) Effectiveness

B) Efficiency

C) User experience

D) User satisfaction

B - Efficiency - Focuses on minimizing the resources needed to achieve a particular goal

Which visual interface model is designed to support future state business processes, typically based on activity diagrams, user stories, and use cases?

A) CRUD UI

B) Navigational UI

C) Process UI

D) Conceptual UI

C - Process UI - Designed to support future state business processes

Which visual interface is developed based on the conceptual data model/database design and requires Search/Select and Single Record Detail screens?

A) Process UI

B) Functional UI

C) CRUD UI

D) Navigational UI

C - CRUD UI - Developed based on the conceptual data model

What are the four key operations supported by CRUD UI?

A) Count, Report, Undo, Duplicate

B) Change, Review, Update, Delete

C) Create, Read (view), Update, Delete

D) Configure, Restrict, Use, Deploy

C - Create, Read (view), Update, Delete - The four key CRUD operations

Which set of design principles includes visibility of system status and consistency and standards?

A) Shneiderman's Golden Rules

B) Babich's UX Principles

C) Nielsen's Heuristics

D) Human-Computer Collaboration Model

C - Nielsen's Heuristics - Design principles including visibility of system status

Which set of design principles includes enabling frequent users to use shortcuts and permitting easy reversal of actions?

A) Nielsen's Heuristics

B) Shneiderman's Golden Rules

C) FURPS+ guidelines

D) TOGAF principles

B - Shneiderman's Golden Rules - Design principles including enabling frequent users to use shortcuts

Which one of the following defines a feature:

A) A collection of user interface controls

B) A system capability that allows a user to achieve a specific goal with the software

C) Individual element on a screen providing functionality

D) Characteristics of a user interface component

B - A system capability that allows a user to achieve a specific goal with the software - A system capability

What is the term commonly used for a user interface element used as part of the interface that is used to enter input or provide guidance to the system?

A) Feature

B) Metaphor

C) Control

D) Affordance

C - Control - An individual UI element on a screen used for input or system control

Which control would you choose if the user needs to be able to select zero to many selections from a list of possible options?

A) Picker

B) Toggle

C) Check boxes

D) Radio buttons

C - Check boxes - Allowing zero to many selections

Which input control allows users to make exactly one selection from a set of options?

A) Check boxes

B) List boxes (multi-select)

C) Radio buttons

D) Text fields

C - Radio buttons - Allowing exactly one selection

What are breadcrumbs?

A) Controls that allow a user to use text search to access a specific functionality

B) Graphical symbols that provide access to specific functionality

C) Components of a dialogue diagram

D) A mechanism for showing how the current screen is associated with other screens in its hierarchy

D - A mechanism for showing how the current screen is associated with other screens in its hierarchy - A navigational control

For whom are navigation codes/keyboard shortcuts typically considered to be an effective navigation mechanism?

A) Novice users with no experience

B) External users with restricted access

C) Experienced users who prefer shortcuts

D) Users with some, but limited experience

C - Experienced users who prefer shortcuts - Enabling frequent users to use shortcuts is a design principle

When defining a CRUD UI Search (or Select) screen, which of the following is true:

A) We need to determine which activity diagram action the screen corresponds to.

B) We need to determine a few key data attributes to use as search filters.

C) We should include all attributes in the underlying entity by default.

D) We need to determine the unique footer for this screen.

B - We need to determine a few key data attributes to use as search filters.

Which one of the following controls is intended for presenting a large number of possible values for the user to select one?

A) Radio button group

B) Slider

C) Toggle

D) Picker

D - Picker - Intended for presenting a large number of possible values for single selection

Which one of the following statements regarding the UI/UX is true?

A) Technical design of the user interface APIs is the most important element.

B) It is best to deal with user experience issues only during business analysis.

C) User experience design issues should be left to experts only.

D) It is important to consider user experience throughout the development process.

D - It is important to consider user experience throughout the development process.

Input validation categories include all the following except:

A) List of acceptable values

B) Range control

C) Prevention of empty values

D) Breadcrumbs

D - Breadcrumbs - A navigational control, not an input validation category

A system with 72 entities (relational tables) would generally include how many CRUD screens, given that the screen count is normally double the entity count:

A) 156 screens.

B) 144 screens.

C) 148 screens.

D) 134 screens.

B - 144 screens. - Screen count is normally double the entity count

What is the process of implementing system changes, which is necessary to deliver real value to the business?

A) System Architecture

B) Change Management

C) Deployment

D) Requirement Elicitation

C - Deployment - The process of implementing system changes to deliver real value

Traditional software deployments are characterized by:

A) Highly automated testing.

B) Automated, routine deployment processes.

C) Infrequent deployments (e.g., three or four times per year).

D) Implementing few changes frequently.

C - Infrequent deployments (e.g., three or four times per year). - Prioritizing extensive planning and testing

Which of the four key traditional deployment approaches is the most simple, straightforward, and least expensive to implement, yet also the most intrinsically risky:

A) Direct deployment

B) Parallel deployment

C) Phased deployment

D) Pilot deployment

A - Direct deployment - All features released to all users at once, carrying the highest deployment risk

Which of the four key traditional deployment approaches offers the best approach for reducing deployment risk, although it is often impractical since it is the highest cost approach:

A) Direct deployment

B) Parallel deployment

C) Pilot deployment

D) Phased deployment

B - Parallel deployment - Both old and new systems operate simultaneously, lowest theoretical risk but highest cost

Which of the four key traditional deployment approaches first deploys all software features to a subset of users, then later to remaining users:

A) Direct deployment

B) Pilot deployment

C) Phased deployment

D) Parallel deployment

B - Pilot deployment - All features are released to a subset of users first

Which of the four key traditional deployment approaches is more compatible with a microservices architecture than a monolithic architecture:

A) Direct deployment

B) Parallel deployment

C) Phased deployment

D) Big Bang deployment

C - Phased deployment - Subsets of features (or modules) are released to all users over time

Which of the following is NOT true of DevOps deployment:

A) Extends agile development principles to deployment.

B) Deploys features more frequently to production than traditional approaches.

C) Is enabled by the general industry trend toward larger, more expensive, and longer software projects.

D) Realizes business benefits more quickly.

C - Is enabled by the general industry trend toward larger, more expensive, and longer software projects. - DevOps supports shorter, frequent changes.

The fundamental progression from traditional deployment to full DevOps is:

A) Traditional -> Continuous Deployment -> Continuous Delivery -> Continuous Integration

B) Traditional -> Continuous Integration -> Continuous Deployment -> Continuous Delivery

C) Traditional -> Continuous Deployment -> Continuous Integration -> Continuous Delivery

D) Traditional -> Continuous Integration -> Continuous Delivery -> Continuous Deployment

D - Traditional -> Continuous Integration -> Continuous Delivery -> Continuous Deployment - The correct progression

The fundamental characteristic(s) of progressing to Continuous Integration is:

A) Implementation of automated and frequent updates to the Master/Production environment.

B) Automatic merging and integration of code updates into the QA/Test environment with significant automated integration and regression testing.

C) Implementation of automated deployments to Staging/UAT environment.

D) Updating code updates less than once a week.

B - Automatic merging and integration of code updates into the QA/Test environment with significant automated integration and regression testing.

Which DevOps stage adds automated integration into a "production-like" environment (Staging/UAT) with significant automation of systems and user acceptance testing?

A) Continuous Integration (CI)

B) Continuous Deployment (CD)

C) Continuous DElivery (CDE)

D) Traditional Deployment

C - Continuous DElivery (CDE) - Adds automated integration into a "production-like" environment

The fundamental characteristic(s) of progressing to Continuous Deployment is:

A) Implementation of automated and frequent software updates to the Master/Production environment.

B) Implementing automated deployments of code to Test/QA environments.

C) Implementation of data anonymization in development environments.

D) Deploying features once every quarter.

A - Implementation of automated and frequent software updates to the Master/Production environment. - Resulting in fully automated and frequent deployments

Which of the following is NOT a technique for reducing risk of deploying bad updates to production when implementing DevOps:

A) Automated security tests.

B) Paying down technical debt.

C) Rearchitecting the application to implement a monolithic architecture.

D) Safe deployment patterns (blue-green, canary, and cluster immune deployments).

C - Rearchitecting the application to implement a monolithic architecture. - DevOps relies on flexible architecture like microservices.

What technique allows features to be deployed to Production but prevents them from being immediately activated, reducing deployment risk?

A) Phased Deployment

B) Feature Flags/Toggles

C) Parallel Deployment

D) Continuous Integration

B - Feature Flags/Toggles - Allows features to be deployed but not turned on

In systems projects, comparing the flow of updates to code vs. the flow of updates to data:

A) Code flows from Dev to Prod and data flows from Prod to Dev.

B) Code flows from Prod to Dev and data flows from Dev to Prod.

C) Both code and data updates flow from Prod to Dev.

D) Flows of code and data depend on the approach used.

A - Code flows from Dev to Prod and data flows from Prod to Dev. - Code flows forward, production data flows backward

Which of the following data preparation tasks are typically conducted by the business, not by IT:

A) Automated updates of new data via Extract, transform, and load (ETL).

B) Data anonymization.

C) Data refresh.

D) Manual updates of new data.

D - Manual updates of new data. - The business is responsible for manual updates (small volumes)

A project that fails to do which of the following tasks or events cannot add value to the business:

A) Define a Definition of Success.

B) Formally approve a business case.

C) Finalize the project charter.

D) Go live deployment to production.

D - Go live deployment to production. - Deployment is necessary to deliver real value

Activities that prepare the business to adapt to and take advantage of new system features are called:

A) Software deployment.

B) Change management.

C) System testing.

D) Test-driven development.

B - Change management. - Activities that prepare the business to adapt to new system features

What is a factor that makes software deployments risky:

A) Software deployments may change the way employees work via automation or streamlining.

B) Software deployments often must be implemented in a short amount of time.

C) There is often little to confirm the software deployment changes were correctly implemented.

D) All of these factors make software deployments risky.

D - All of these factors make software deployments risky. - Deployment is inherently risky

For large, complex systems, most of the data for development:

A) Is created by developers.

B) Is created by IT testers/QA staff.

C) Flows from the production environment towards the development environment.

D) Flows with code updates from the development environment towards the product environment.

C - Flows from the production environment towards the development environment. - Production data flows back for testing and development

Which of the following is NOT a typical source of deployment risk (a.k.a., implementation risk):

A) Deploying software defects or bugs

B) Failure to anonymize data.

C) Poor performance and reliability.

D) Security flaws.

B - Failure to anonymize data. - While important, it is a data preparation task, not a primary source of implementation risk like defects, performance issues, or security flaws

Which of the following is NOT a key deployment capability specifically needed to progress beyond Continuous Delivery (CDE) to Continuous Deployment (CD)?

A) Automated functionality tests.

B) Automated security tests.

C) Promoting safer deployments.

D) Implementing feature flags/toggles.

A - Automated functionality tests. - This capability is significant but usually achieved in CI/CDE; CD requires the final steps of automation and safe deployment patterns

Which one of the following is not aligned with Babich's UX principles for mobile user experience?

A) Focus on the visibility of interface elements

B) Make sure that all potentially necessary information is available on the same screen

C) Support user with navigation as much as possible

D) Minimize the need for typing

B - Make sure that all potentially necessary information is available on the same screen - Mobile UX often requires splitting complex content across multiple screens

What is a commonly used term for an integrated collection of information displays that focus on key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A) Dashboard

B) Query panel

C) BI tool

D) Analytics platform

A - Dashboard - An integrated collection of information displays focusing on KPIs

Which one of Nielsen's heuristics does the following system behavior demonstrate: the system offers a different navigation mechanism depending on the user's experience level and choice?

A) User control and freedom

B) Flexibility and efficiency of use

C) Recognition rather than recall

D) Consistency and standards

B - Flexibility and efficiency of use - Providing shortcuts or different mechanisms for experienced users

When determining user role-level access for a CRUD UI model, which of the following is not relevant:

A) Row-level access.

B) Read/update access (none, read-only, or update).

C) Each user role.

D) Device access (none, web browser, mobile application, or both)

D - Device access (none, web browser, mobile application, or both) - Access control focuses on data/operation permissions, not device type

Which one of the following statements regarding forms of usability evaluation is false?

A) In heuristic evaluation, current or prospective users perform the tests

B) In usability testing, current or prospective users perform the tests

C) In cognitive walkthrough, experts perform the tests

D) In heuristic evaluation, experts determine if a system is aligned with a predefined set of principles

A - In heuristic evaluation, current or prospective users perform the tests - In heuristic evaluation, experts (not users) perform the tests

Which one of the following is not one of the model types in the Zachman framework?

A) People

B) Time

C) Data

D) Speed

D - Speed - The models are Data, Function, Network, People, Time, and Motivation

Which one of the following is not a Zachman actor role?

A) Planner

B) Subcontractor

C) Director

D) Designer

B - Subcontractor - Roles typically include Planner, Owner, Designer, Builder, Implementer, and Director

The fundamental characteristic(s) of progressing to Continuous Deployment is:

A) Implementing automated deployments of code from Development to Test/QA with automated integration and regression tests.

B) Implementation of data anonymization.

C) Implementation of automated and frequent software updates to the Master/Production environment.

D) Deploying updates less than once per week.

C - Implementation of automated and frequent software updates to the Master/Production environment. - The ultimate, fully automated step in DevOps

Which one of the following best reflects the meaning of architecture as context for systems development?

A) Design of the space in which development teams work

B) Non-functional requirements of the system

C) The high-level, foundational system environment decisions that, once implemented, are hard to change

D) Technical design of the features and functional designs of the system

C - The high-level, foundational system environment decisions that, once implemented, are hard to change - Providing the high-level context

Which of the following does NOT characterize the evolution of a typical system project from the 1980s until now?

A) Project durations have gotten much shorter.

B) Project infrastructure has increasingly focused on virtual machines and cloud computing.

C) Project costs of failure have increased to the point where a single project can result in the organization going bankrupt.

D) Project budgets have gotten much smaller.

C - Project costs of failure have increased to the point where a single project can result in the organization going bankrupt. - While costs of failure have increased, this extreme outcome is not a universal characteristic of project evolution

Which of the following is NOT a typical change management area as discussed in the textbook:

A) Refactoring software.

B) Data preparation.

C) User acceptance testing.

D) Updating training manuals.

A - Refactoring software. - Refactoring is a development/coding task, not a typical business/organizational change management area