Pharmacy Tech Certification Exam

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Last updated 1:23 AM on 3/4/25
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212 Terms

1
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The directions for use for Timoptic is 2 gtts os bid. What is the meaning of os?

left eye

2
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What is the Latin abbreviation for "after meals"?

pc

3
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An order reads "Tylenol 325mg pr q 4 h prn". What dosage form should be dispensed?

Suppositories

4
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A pharmacy technician repacks bulk solid dosage forms into unit dosed packages. What expiration date will appear on the package?

50% of labeled expiration date to a maximum of 1 year

5
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The expiration date on a bottle of Cipro 500mg tablets states 4/09. When does this drug expire?

midnight 4/30/09

6
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A physician prescribes Ceclor 375mg po bid. What is wrong with this prescription?

the Rx lacks a duration of therapy

7
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Which dosage form is formulated to dissolve in the intestine rather than the stomach?

enteric-coated

8
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What is the term for the process by which substances are taken up and transported to the bloodstream?

absorption

9
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What is "room temperature"

15-30 degrees Centigrade (Celsius)

10
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The process whereby a drug is transformed by the liver is referred to as;

metabolism

11
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A patient enters the pharmacy complaining of persistent heartburn. The pharmacy technician should:

tell the patient to speak to the pharmacist

12
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Which of the following duties may a pharmacy technician not do?

  • call the wholesaler for a drug order

  • enter a prescription data into the computer

  • affix a drug label to a prescription container

  • accept a verbal medication order from a physician

accept a verbal medication order from a physician

13
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The directions for use of a medication are " ii gtts au q 4 h x 5d". What is au?

in both ears

14
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The dispensing label on an outpatient pharmacy prescription requires:

legal name of pharmacy and address

15
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The NDC on a medication bottle refers to the:

-manufacturer

-drug product

-quantity packaged

16
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What dosage form is formulated to mask an objectionable taste of a medication?

film-coated tablets

17
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What dosage forms has the highest concentration of alcohol in its formulation?

a tincture

18
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Which of the following is NOT required on a unit-dosed packaged drug?

-expiration date

-lot #

-storage requirements

-strength of medication

storage requirements

19
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Nonprescription drugs should not be included in the patient profile. True or False

False

20
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Amoxicillin oral suspension is stable in a refrigerator for how many days after reconstitution?

14

21
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Which drug is likely to cause a photosensitivity reaction?

a) Biaxin

b) penicillin

c) Cipro

d) tetracycline

tetracycline

22
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The abbreviation 'PCN" means what?

Penicillin

23
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Which of the following 2 drug classes have cross-sensitivity?

a) tetracycline and penicillin

b) penicillin and erythromycin

c) erythromycin and penicillin

d) penicillin and cephalosporin

penicillin and cephalosporin

24
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What is the storage requirement for reconstituted amoxicillin 250 mg/ 5ml?

36 to 46 degrees F

25
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Translate the following:

a. Gtt ii o.u. q 4 h prn

b. M. ft ung

c. tsp i q 4 h or 5 h prn itching

a) Place 2 drops into both eyes every 4 hours as needed

b) Mix and make an ointment

c) Take one teaspoonful by mouth every 4 to 5 hours as needed for itch

26
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How many times can an unscheduled prescription be refilled on a PRN prescription order?

as needed for one year

27
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What schedule are the following drug products?

Vicodin ______

Codeine _____

Valium ______

Lomotil ______

3

2

4

5

28
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Acetaminophen possesses all of the following except

a) analgesic

b) anti-inflammatory

c) antipyretic

anti-inflammatory

29
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How does activated charcoal work in an overdose?

absorbs the poison

30
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The dose of syrup of ipecac for children is_____

15 ml

31
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The normal dose of fexofenadine is:

60 mg bid

32
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The highest strength of Demerol is:

100 mg

33
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List 3 known routes of transmission of HIV infections

-bodily fluids

-blood transfusions

-mom to fetus

34
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Medication class of Provera?

Progestin

35
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Estraderm is available in which dosage form?

Patch

36
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Pseudoephedrine, a common ingredient in cold preparations, is contraindicated in which of the following disease states?

a) hypertension

b) asthma

c) constipation

d) cancer

hypertension

37
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Which of the following drugs is a benzodiazepine?

A) Florinal

B) Percodan

C) Dermol

D) Klonopin

Klonopin

38
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What drug is used to treat dyspepsia (ulcers)?

Pepcid

39
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A patient hands you an empty vial of Ritalin and asks for the Rx to be refilled. What should you do?

tell the patient that the medicine is not refillable

40
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Which of the following drugs is not an OTC product?

a) Advil

b) Nuperin

c) Ibuprofen 400mg

d) Tylenol Suppositories

Ibuprofen 400 mg

41
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Which of the following drugs is used in chest pain?

a) meperidine

b) diltiazem

c) nitroglycerin

d) piroxicam

Nitroglycerin

42
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Codeine, meperidine and oxycodone all belong to which controlled schedule?

II

43
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What is "Syrup of Ipecac" indicated for?

to induce vomiting

44
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Which of the following drugs is not a laxative?

a) Dulcolax

b) Metamucil

c) Imodium

d) Colace

Imodium

45
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A patient on warfarin therapy should never take which of the following medications?

a) Percocet

b) Tylenol

c) Dermol

d) Percodan

Percodan

46
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Which of the following is a Scheduled IV controlled substance?

a) Lomotil

b) Xanax

c) Demerol

d) Haldol

Xanax

47
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Heparin belongs to which pharmacological category?

Anticoagulant

48
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Which of the following medications is an anticonvulsant?

a) atenolol

b) dextromethorphan

c) carbamazepine

d) isoxusprine

Carbamazepine

49
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Terbutaline belongs to which drug classification?

a) antineoplastic

b) anticonvulsant

c) bronchodilator

Bronchodilator

50
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The joint action of drugs in which their combined effect is more intense or longer in duration than the sum of their individual effects is:

Synergism

51
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The most used drug for parkinsonism is

Sinemet

52
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The exact amount of a drug administered to get a specific response is the _____.

Dose

53
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When dispensing an antidepressant; the patient should be informed that

it may take as long as two weeks before the drug is effective

54
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Which drug has a loading dose as part of the regimen?

A) Macrodantin

B) Zithromax

C) Cipro

D) Doxycycline

Zithromax

55
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Treatment for migraine is most effective if

initiated early in the attack

56
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Expectorants are used in lung disease to?

stimulate respiratory secretions and break up mucus

57
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Which drugs listed should be taken on an empty stomach:

a) Tetracycline

b) NSAIDs

c) Dilantin

d) All of the above

Tetracycline

58
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Which B vitamins need to be given IM?

B12

59
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The nitro patch should not be worn 24 hours a day in order to avoid _____.

tolerance

60
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Which OTC lowers cholesterol and can cause a flushing reaction?

Niacin

61
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The technician should check for which drugs in the profile if the patient is on a potassium supplement?

- ACE inhibitors

- Dyazide

- Maxzide

62
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Nitroglycerin may be stored in all of the listed except:

a) an amber glass bottle

b) prescription bottles

c) original container

d) all of the above

Prescription bottles

63
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Why are diuretics commonly used in congestive heart failure?

To decrease the amount of fluid in the body by increasing urination

64
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All of the following belong to the class of drugs known as ACE inhibitors except:

a) captopril

b) digoxin

c) enalapril

d) ramipril

Digoxin

65
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Most superpotent topical steroids have restrictions limiting their use to

2 weeks

40-50 grams in one week

66
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The NSAID most frequently used to treat gout is

Indomethacin

67
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Which urinary analgesic will turn urine orange?

Pyridium

68
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Which drug reduces blood pressure and grows hair?

a) Inderal

b) Catapress

c) Loniten

d) Aldomet

Loniten (minoxidil)

69
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Which drug dissolves a clot once it has formed?

a) Heparin

b) Coumadin

c) Fragmin

d) Urokinase

Urokinase

70
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Which drug is a loop diuretic?

a) Bumex

b) Dyazide

c) Diltiazem

d) Ziac

Bumex

71
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Which drug is a calcium channel blocker?

a) Digoxin

b) Nitroglycerin

c) Verapamil

d) Zestril

Verapamil

72
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The drug most used for an acute gout attack is

Zyloprim (generic: Allopurinol)

73
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What type of prescription balance must be used for compounding 120 mgs of a 1% topical antifungal cream?

Class A

74
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What type of measuring device should be used to measure 3 ml of a liquid for compounding?

10 mL cylindrical graduate

75
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Grinding of tablets into a fine powder in a porcelain mortar is an example of:

trituration

76
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What is the proper method of measuring a liquid in a graduated cylinder?

Hold at eye level and read the bottom of the meniscus

77
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The process of producing a smooth dispersion of a drug with a spatula is called

Levigation

78
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What is the most accurate device for measuring liquids?

Cylindrical graduate

79
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What is the smallest weight a class A balance can weigh?

120 mg (2 grain)

80
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When dispensing a Ventolin inhaler, how often must the Patient Package insert (PPI) be included with the drug product?

Every time the prescription is dispensed

81
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Which drug requires a follow-up "Cover" prescription when dispensed as a verbal order?

a) Vicodin

b) Valium

c) phenobarbital

d) all of the above

all of the above

82
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What is the proper procedure for cleaning a laminar flow hood?

side to side, back to front

83
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Which procedure would you not do when opening an ampule?

a) wipe the neck with an alcohol pad

b) after wiping with an alcohol pad, dry the neck with a paper towel

c) break the ampule with an alcohol pad covering the neck

d) filter the contents with a filter needle

after wiping with an alcohol pad, dry the neck with a paper towel

84
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How far into the hood should the pharmacy technician work?

6 inches

85
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What size filter is considered a sterilizing filter?

0.22 micron

86
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How often must a laminar flow hood be checked?

every 6 months

87
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How long may a schedule class II drug be refilled?

no refills

88
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If a HCTZ prescription states, 'refill prn', for how long may this Rx be refilled?

1 year

89
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How often must controlled substances be physically inventoried?

Once every 2 years

90
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Which governmental agency is responsible for safety in the workplace?

OSHA

91
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The "C" designation for controlled substances must appear on a controlled prescription:

in red in the lower right hand corner of the Rx

92
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A vial of reconstituted Adriamycin breaks inside a vertical flow hood. What should the technician do?

clean up the spill with a spill kit

93
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Which federal legislation enacted in 1970 regulates the use and distribution of substances with high abuse potential?

CSA

94
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Which legislation established two classes of drugs?

Durham-Humphrey Amendment

95
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The manufacturing, dispensing and distribution of controlled substances is regulated by the:

FDA

96
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Which law allows nasal inhalers to be dispensed without a child-resistant container?

Poison Control Act of 1970

97
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Which law allows pharmacists/interns to take prescriptions over the telephone from a physician's office?

Durham-Humphrey Amendment

98
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Which organization oversees Medicare and Medicaid service?

CMS

99
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How long is a DEA Form 222 valid?

60 days

100
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Methylphenidate treats:

- ADHD

- Narcolepsy

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