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Aircraft Armament Systems Craftsman Volume 1
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(001) Which technical order (TO) series should you refer to when loading an unfamiliar munitions configurations?
-1 Flight manual
(001) Who is the weapons expediter directly responsible to for all armament systems maintenance and munitions loading operations?
Weapons section non-commissioned officer in charge
(002) The benchmark time that is standard for aircraft repairs is
8 Hours
Which Air Force (AFI) describes the responsibilities for Total Force Integration
90-1001
The total force integration concept that gives one component commander the authority to designate objectives, assign tasks, and provide the direction to another component subordinate necessary to accomplish the mission is
operational direction
(003) When an entire Air National Guard (ANG) unit is performing in a Title 10 status, it must be assigned to which type of organizational structure
Title 10
(003) The master labor agreement (MLA) applies to which type of civilian employees
Bargaining unit
(004) Who has the authority to grant a “one time” flight of an impound aircraft according to technical order (TO) 00-20-1
Group commander
(005) Which type of aircraft servicing will not be accomplished during fuel servicing while performing a concurrent servicing operation (CSO)
Oxygen
(005) Which concurrent servicing operation (CSO) aircraft maintenance action requires a concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS)
Aircraft fueling
(005) Which functional area can authorize a fighter unit to conduct dual loading operations (DLO)
Major command (MAJCOM)
(005) Which requirement constitutes the recurring annual training requirement for dual loading operations (DLO)
Academic training only
Who is the approval for authority for locally modified versions of the AF IMT 2430, Specialist Dispatch Control Log
Wing weapons manager
(006) In the unlikely event that an aircraft does not return from a mission, which AF IMT provides an accurate record of what type and number of munitions were loaded, and the part/serial numbers of installed alternate mission equipment (AME)
2434
(007) The form published as a continuation form for Part 5 of the Air Force technical order (AFTO) For 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record is an
AFTO Form 245
(007) Items such a jammer forks require a periodic serviceability testing with the results documented on an Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form
244
(007) Which document type is sent to the gaining unit when transferring equipment such as missile launchers, bomb racks, and suspension utility units
AFTO Form 95, Significant Historical Data Record or automated AFTO Form 95
(008) Who must electronically sign all training business area (TBA) journal entries
Supervisor and/or trainer and trainee
(008) Which document serves as a contract between the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) and the user to show the overall training requirements for an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) that the formal schools teach
Specialty training standard (STS)
(008) You must evaluate a recent formal school graduate’s military bearing and technical ability within
90 days
(008) The individual that may grant an extension to a trainee’s 30-day time limit per career development course (CDC) volume completion, due to mission requirements is the
Unit training manager
(008) When a trainee fails their course exam on the first attempt the maximum amount of days allowed for the trainee to retest is
90
(009) Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) covers the Air Force mishap prevention program to minimize the loss of resources and protect Air Force personnel from death, injury, or illness by managing risks
91-202
(009) Who ensures adherence to your work center safety program requirements are part of the measurement of non-supervisory personnel’s performance appraisal
Supervisor
(009) The organization that advises commanders, functional managers, supervisors, and workers on all safety matter is
Installation safety office
(010) Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) assigns responsibilities to individuals or functions to help commanders manage their safety and health programs
91-203
(010) The three main human factors you should consider when it comes to safety in your work center are
Physiological, physical, and organizational
(011) The Air Force Instruction (AFI) that covers Air Force occupational safety instructions for electrical safety is
91-203
(012) Who will you contact is you receive an improperly packaged electrostatic sensitive device (ESD)
Base supply
(012) The electrostatic sensitive device (ESD) level that is not a classification of damage is
human error failure
(013) Which type of cable is not classified as a radio frequency cable
Shielded
(014) Which component consists of two mating assemblies, the plug and receptacle
Connector system
(015) Identify the last phase in the troubleshooting process of technical data once you have located your malfunction
Repair
(016) The level of your maintenance system primarily concerned with testing and repair, replacement of component parts, line replaceable units, and alternate mission equipment (AME)
Intermediate
(016) Which level of your maintenance system includes centralized intermediate repair facilities (CIRF)
Intermediate
(016) The level of maintenance performed on or off-equipment at a major repair facility is called
Depot
(016) In addition to the maintenance operation squadron/maintenance operation flight (MOS/MOF) which other organization must you request depot-level assistance through?
Quality assurance
(017) How many authorized inspection concepts are used for aircraft
Four
(017) Which inspection concept is based upon accrual of the number of flying hours, operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable -6 scheduled inspection, and maintenance requirements
Periodic
(017) The primary objective of the phased inspection concept is to
Minimize the length of time an aircraft is out of commission for any given scheduled inspection
(017) Which inspection concepts is designed to translate flying hour utilization rates into calendar periods expressed in days?
Isochronal
(017) Which inspection concept is used to inspect individual areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond the scheduled inspection and maintenance requirements listed in the -6
Programmed depot maintenance
The flightline inspection that must be accomplished after each flight when a turnaround sortie is scheduled is the
Thruflight
Which flightline inspection is completed after the last flight of a specified flying period
Basic postflight
(018) the flightline inspection that is an integral part of any loading operation is
Postload
(018) Who establishes the guidelines for the flightline in process inspection (IPI)
Major command (MAJCOM)
(018) What kind of flightline inspection is usually initiated after a high failure rate of an item occurs, which is followed by a safety supplement or a one-time inspection being issued?
In process inspection (IPI)
(018) The type of flightline inspection that is done because of a defect or to inspect a particular item or system for a defect is called a/an
One-time inspection
(019) The integrated maintenance data system (IMDS) replaced the Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS) and the
Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS)
(020) Which document reflects the munitions required to meet the unit operational and training needs
Unit committed munitions list (UCML)
(020) The document that is used to determine which munitions your load crews are required to be trained and hold a certification is the
Unit committed munitions list (UCML)
(020) How many combined munitions and munitions family groups (MFG) can a non-test unit’s load crews hold a certification
15
(021) Each base assigned as a bad down location or assigned the responsibility to support forces for the operational plan (OPLAN) must develop a
Base support plan (BSP)
(021) Which type of information is contained in the designed operations capability (DOC) statement
Mission tasking narrative, mission specifics, and resources required
(022) The document that provides an all-inclusive tasking for aircraft and munitions is the
Air tasking order (ATO)
(023) How many D-rings are on the 463L pallet rail
22
(023) The usable dimensions of the 436L pallet is
84” x 104”
(023) Which feature would prevent a 436L pallet from being used
Skin separated from the wood core center
(024) Who authorizes flightline locations for conducting explosive operations such as explosive cargo on- or off- loading and combat aircraft explosives loading
Wing weapons safety
(025) Who is responsible for preparing and submitting all explosive site plans (ESP)
Wing weapons safety office
(025) the term “quantity-distance (Q-D)” refers to the
Protection requirements from potential explosive sites (PES) to different kinds of exposed sites (ES)
(025) Which situation would be a reason to submit a request for a new explosive site plan
A munitions with increased or more hazardous class/division is introduced
(025) Which area requires an explosive sites plan (ESP)
Shelters for arm/de-arm crews
(025) Who determines the need for an explosive sites plan (ESP)
Weapons safety personnel
(026) Who must keep a current personnel list of personnel qualified for a safety investigation board (SIB)
Base and wing commander
(026) Identify the minimum rank of the president of safety investigation board (SIB) involving ground, explosive, or aircraft safety in a Class-A on-duty mishap
Colonel or GM-15
(026) Historically, who ensures the independence and integrity of safety investigation boards (SIB)
Congress
(027) Identify the qualifications you must have to perform a physical demilitarization function
Technically qualified personnel trained appropriately for processes and equipment use
(028) When are stock funds in your unit’s budget replenished
Quarterly
(028) The one sure way you can undermine the supply system is by
Using the wrong priority when ordering parts
(028) Stock levels for bench stock are based on
Consumption level
(028) Which action does supply accomplish when a bench stock part usage is low for a long period of time
Identifying the part as a candidate for deletion
(028) Which organizational level is required to fund special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets
Depot
(028) which series technical order (TO) lists all assets authorized to an aircraft
-21
(028) Who identifies items that are managed and controlled as equipment
Major command (MAJCOM) and Air Force Material Command (AFMC)
(028) Who may approve a cannibalization of a part before the initiation of the cannibalization documentation
Cannibalization authority
(028) The specific documentation procedures for cannibalization can be found in technical reference
00-20 series
(028) Which organization provides the Army, Navy, Air Force, Marines, combined and allied forces with the full range of logistic, acquisition and technical services
Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)
(029) Identify what within the supply ordering system describes the items and quantities of equipment required to perform the missions and duties of our organizations and individual specialists
Equipment allowance standards
(029) Identify the official document within the supply ordering system that list accountable items used in an organization
Custody authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL)
(030) Which type of repair cycle item must you return to depot for condemnation
Depot recoverable (XD)
(030) A broken asset is entered into the repair cycle process when you
Order a replacement
(030) Which system is assigned to repairable items in the repair cycle process in order to tell base supply where to ships a repairable item
Due-in from maintenance (DIFM)
(030) It is important to use the correct maintenance action taken code to
Tell the supply computer if the part is serviceable, not repairable this station (NRTS), or condemned
(030) Which document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S)
Daily document register
(031) Which form should you submit on support equipment to identify obsolete equipment and the estimated age when, because of wear and tear, it is considered not feasible to repair
AFTO form 375
(031) The action you should take when preparing maintenance tags or labels that might be subjected to conditions that may cause the ink to run or become illegible is
Use something other than a ballpoint pen
(031) Which type of information is added to the DD Form 1348-1A, Issue Release/Receipt Document to create the DD Form 1348-2
Mailing information
(032) Who designs, develops, tests, approves, and standardizes equipment for Air Force use around munitions
Munitions material handling equipment (MMHE) focal point
(032) The form used to document serviceability inspections of locally manufactured equipment (LME) is
AFTO form 244
(033) The types of deficiency reports (DR) in the deficiency reporting system are
Category (CAT) I and CAT II
(034) Which shipping condition would require a report of discrepancy (ROD)
Condition of item in excess of $100 differs from what is shown on shipping document
(035) Identify what will happen if you submit an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 22, Technical Manual Change Recommendation and Reply for a typographical error
It will not be approved
(035) For an emergency report, how many hours should you wait before you complete a follow-up action for changes to a technical order (TO)
60
(035) If your Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 22, Technical Manual Change Recommendation and Reply requires engineering support and you do not know the wording or the deficiency requiring engineering research, what must you do
State it on your report
(036) When forecasting munitions, who does the unit submit a munitions forecast through to get it to the major command (MAJCOM) level
Munitions accountability supply officer
(036) How are munitions items on hand dealt with when forecasting the next year’s munitions
Forecast for every munitions you have if you will need it next year
(037) The database that gives higher headquarters “real-time” visibility of munitions accountability is the
Combat ammunition system (CAS)
(037) The number one avoidable reason for delays in excess munitions being picked up is
Improperly configured munitions trailers
(037) Which regulatory guidance is used to properly configure and secure munitions trailers for towing
TO 11-1-38