FAA PPL Test Prep: Ch. 4: Regulations

3005. The definition of nighttime is
A-Sunset to Sunrise
B-1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise
C- the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight

C- the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight

3064. In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may
A- Not pay less than the pro rata share
B- Act as a pilot in command
C- not be paid in any manner

A- not pay less that the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees

3065. According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may
A- Be paid for the operating expenses of a flight
B- not be paid in any manner
C- Not pay less than the pro rata share

C. Not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees

3066. What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight
A- If the passengers pay all the operating expenses
B- If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight
C- There is no exception

B- If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight

3067. (Figure 74) What minimum pilot certificate is required for a flight departing out of Hayward Executive?
A- Student Pilot Certificate
B- Private Pilot Certificate
C- Sport Pilot Certificate

A- Student Pilot Certificate

3001. With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?
A- gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon
B- airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air
C- single engine land and sea, multi engine land and sea

B- airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air

3002. With respect to the certification of airmen, which are classes of aircraft?
A- airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air
B- single engine land and sea, multi engine land and sea
C- lighter than air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon

B- Single engine land and sea, multi engine land and sea

3024. The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?
A- aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the administrator
B- aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12500 pounds
C- aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights

B- Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12500 pounds

3039. A third class medical certificate was issued to a 19 year old pilot on August 10 this year. To exercise the privileges of a Recreational or Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will expire midnight on
A- August 10, 2 years later
B- August 31, 5 years later
C- August 31, 3 years later

B- August 31, 5 years later

3020. A third class medical certificate is issued to 36 year old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercises the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on
A- August 10, 3 years later
B- August 31, 5 years later
C- August 31, 3 years later

B- August 31, 5 years later

3021. A third class medical certificate is issued to a 51 year old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the m,medical certificate will be valid until midnight on
A- May 3, 1 year later
B- May 31, 1 year later
C- May 31, 2 years later

C- May 31, 2 years later

3022. For private pilot operations, a second class medical certificate issued to a 42 year old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on
A- July 15, 2 years later
B- July 31, 1 year later
C- July 31, 2 years later

C- July 31, 2 years later

3023. For private pilot operations, a First Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23 year old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on
A- October 21, 2 years later
B- October 31, next year
C- October 31, 5 years later

C- October 31, 5 years later

3023-1. To operate under BasicMed the pilot-in-command must have completed a physical examination by a state-licensed physician within the preceding
A. 48 months.
B. 24 months.
C. 12 months

A. 48 months.

3023-2. For private pilot operations under BasicMed, the pilot-in-command is allowed to fly with no more than
A- six passengers
B- five passengers
C- five occupants

B- five passengers

3023-3. To maintain BasicMed privileges you are required to complete the comprehensive medical examination checklist (CMEC) every
A. 48 months.
B. 24 months.
C. 12 months.

A. 48 months.

3016. What documents must be in your possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating s pilot in command of an aircraft?
A- Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current flight review
b- a pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency or experience
C-An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required

C- An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required

3017. When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilots personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
A- when acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery
B- only when passengers are carried
C- anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember

C- anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember

3018. A recreational pr private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in their possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current
A- logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactory accomplished
B- medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate
C- endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished

B- medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate

3019. Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any
A- authorized representative of the Department of transportation
B- person and position of authority
C- federal, state, or local law enforcement officer

C- federal, state, or local law enforcement officer

3028. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding
A- 6 calendar months
B- 12 calendar months
C- 24 calendar months

C- 24 calendar months

3029. If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is
A- 1829
B- 1859
C- 1929

C- 1929

3030. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within preceding
A- 90 days
B- 12 calendar months
B- 24 calendar months

A- 90 days

3030-1. Your cousin wants you to take him flying, in order to do this you must have made at least three take offs and three landings, in your aircraft within the proceeding
A- 90 days
B- 60 days
C- 30 days

A- 90 days

3031. to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers the pilot must have made three take offs and three landings within the proceeding 90 days in an aircraft of the same
A- make and model
B- category, class, but not type
C- category, class, and type if a type rating is required

C- category, class, and if a type rating is required

3034. To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command to carry passengers at night a pilot must have made at least three take offs and three landings to a full stop within the proceeding of 90 days in
A- the same category and class of aircraft to be used
B- the same type of aircraft to be used
C- any aircraft

A- The same category and class of aircraft to be used

3040. In a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8 this year, when is the next flight review required?
A- August 8, 2 years later
B- August 31, next year
C- August 31, 2 years later

C- August 31, 2 years later

3041. Each recreational or private pilot is required to have
A- a biennial flight review
B- an annual flight review
C- a semiannual flight review

A- a biennial flight review

3032. The take offs and landings required to meet the recency of experienced requirements for carrying passengers in a tail wheel airplane
A- ma touch and go or full stop
B- must be touch and go
C- must be to a full stop

C- must be to a full stop

3033. The three take offs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from
A- sunset to sunrise
B- 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise
C- the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight

B- one hour after sunset to one hour before sunrise

3025. What is the definition of a high performance airplane?
A- an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower
B- an airplane with 180 horsepower , or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller
C- an airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 20 knots

A- an airplane with an engine more than 200 horse power

3026. Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high performance airplane, that person must have
A- passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector
B- an endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command
C- received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook

C- Received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that persons logbook

3027. In order to act as pilot in command of a high performance airplane, a pilot must
A- made and logged three solo takeoffs and landings in a high performance airplane
B- passed a flight test in a high performance airplane
C- received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower

C- receive and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horse power

3036. A certified private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered a pilots log book a minimum of
A- 100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft, that the pilot is using to tow a glider
B- 100 hours of pilot in command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider
c- 200 hours of pilot in command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider

B- 100 hours of pilot in command time in the aircraft category, class, and type if required that the pilot is using a tow a glider

3037. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the proceeding 24 months
A- at least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft
B- at ;east three flights in a powered glider\
C- at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot

C- at least three actual or stimulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot

3035. If a certified pilot changes a permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA airmen certification branch of the new address the pilot is entitled to excessive the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period only
A- 30 days after the date of the move
B- 60 days after the date of the move
C- 90 days after the date of the move

A- 30 days after the date of the move

3070. The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the

A- Federal Aviation Administration
B- pilot in command
C- aircraft manufacturer

B- pilot in command

3072. If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may

A- deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours
B- deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency
C- not deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the Administrator

B- deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency

3073. When must a pilot deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?

A- Within 7 days
B- Within 10 days
C- Upon request

C- Upon request

3074. Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?

A- A certified aircraft mechanic
B- The pilot in command
C- The owner or operator

B- The pilot in command

3080. Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight

A- Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries
B- Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight
C- Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures

B- Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight

3081. Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include

A- the designation of an alternate airport
B- a study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use
C- an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned

C- an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned

3063. Prior to becoming certified as a private pilot with a balloon rating, the pilot must have in his or her possession what class medical?
A- a third class medical certificate
B- a medical certificate is not required
C- a statement from a designated medical examiner

B- a medical certificate is not required

3082. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to

C- determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircrafts takeoff and landing distance data

3132. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

C- enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

3131. What is the specific fuel requirements for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

B- enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 min at normal cruising speed

3133. No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR unless there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly thereafter at least

A- 20 minutes

2033. How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?

C- thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufactorer

3083. Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during

A- takeoffs and landings

3084. Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?

C- safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during take off and landing

3085. With respect to passangers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?

B- the pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten seat belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing

3085-1. Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts for a flight is the responsibility of

A- all passengers

3086. With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secure about passengers during

A- taxi, takeoffs, and landings

3087. Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in the aircraft and when?

B- Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only

3077. A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the proceeding

A- 8 hours

3078. under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs be carried abroad an aircraft?

A- in an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under roper care

3079. No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with

C- .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood

3079-1. How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

A- no later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action

3089. Which aircraft has the right of way over all other air traffic?

B- an aircraft in distress

3090. What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head on?

B- The aircraft on the left shall give way

3093. Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed?

A- glider

3092. An airplane and an airship are converging. if the airship is left of the airplanes position, which aircraft has the right of way?

A- the airship

3091. Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed?

C- aircraft towing other aircraft

3095. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to the aircraft

C- at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another

3096. A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left or the seaplane, which has the right of way?

B- The seaplane

3094. What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head on collision course?

C- Both pilots should give way to the right

3108. When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from the clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is

B- an emergency

3108-1. As Pilot in Command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance?

C- In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory

3109. When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?

A- within 48 hours if requested by ATC

3110. What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?

B- File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested

3837. An ATC clearance provides

C- authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace

2003. An ATC clearance means an authorization by ATC for an aircraft to proceed under specified conditions within

A- controlled airspace

2004. While on a VFR cross country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?

A- 121.5 HZ

3101. Except when necessary for take off or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

A- an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property of the surface

3102. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?

C- an altitude of 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000 ft of the aircraft

3103. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

B- An altitude of 500 ft AG:, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 ft from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure

3104. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel vehicle, or structure?

A- 500 ft

3136. During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1200 ft AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirements for VFR flight is

C- 2000 ft

3138. What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10000 ft MSL?

B- 3 miles

3139. The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10000 ft MSL is

B- 500 ft below, 1000 ft above, and 2000 ft horizontally

3140. During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 ft AGL, but less than 10000 ft MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

B- 1000 ft

3141. VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1200 ft AGL and below 10000 ft MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of

A- 3 miles, and 500 ft below or 1000 ft above the clouds in controlled airspace

3145. The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10000 ft MSL and more than 1200 ft AGL in controlled airspace is

C- 5 miles

3146. For VFR flight operations above 10000 ft MSL and more than 1200 ft AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is

C- 1 mile

3147. During operations at altitudes of more than 1200 ft AGL and at or above 10000 ft MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

B- 1000 ft

3620-1. (Refer to figure 22) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements top operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1200 ft AGL are

#- 3 miles and 1000 ft above, 500 ft below, and 2000 ft horizontally from each cloud

3620-2. (refer to figure 22) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate at night over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 ft AGL are

A- 3 miles and 1000 ft above, 500 ft below, and 2000 ft horizontally from each cloud

3621-1. (refer to figure 26) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town or Cooperstown between 1200 ft AGL and 10000 ft MSL are

C- 3 miles and 1000 ft above, 500 ft below, and 2000 ft horizontally from clouds

3621-2. (refer to figure 26) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown after departing and climbing out of Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 ft AGL are

C- 1 mile and clear of clouds

3621-3. (refer to figure 78) What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from Onawa, IA airport during the day?

C- 1 statute mile, clear of clouds

3520.(refer to figure 26)Inflight and approaching the Bryn Airstrip, the weather minimums are

A- 1 statute mile visibility

3137. What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 ft AGL or below during daylight hours?

A- 1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds

3142. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 ft AGL, but less than 10000 ft MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is

B- 3 miles

3143. Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1200 ft AGL below 10000 ft MSL during daylight hours is

A- 1 mile

3144. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 ft AGL, but less than 10000 ft MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is

A- 500 ft

3148. No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the

C- ground visibility at that airport id at least 3 miles

3149. The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are

B- 1000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility

3151. What is the minimum weather condition required for airplances operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?

A- 1 mile flight visibility
B- 1 mile flight visibility and 1000 foot ceiling
C- 3 miles flight visibility and 1000' ceiling

A- 1 mile flight visibility

3153. What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in class d airspace at night?

A- The airplane must under radar surveillance at all times while in Class d airspace.
B- The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.
C- the pilot must be instrument rated and the airplane must be IFR equipped.

C- the pilot must be instrument rated and the airplane must be IFR equipped.

3154. No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the

A- flight can be conducted 500' below the clouds.
B- airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
C- Flight visibility is at least 3 miles.

B- airplane is equipped for instrument flight.