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60 Terms

1
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Which of the following is not an acceptable diluent for synovial fluid WBC count?

A. 3% acetic acid

B. 0.3% NaCl

C. Hypotonic saline

D. 1% saponin solution

A. 3% acetic acid

2
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Which parameter will be primarily affected if the first portion of a semen specimen is not collected?

A. Viscosity

B. Sperm count

C. Sperm motility

D. pH

B. Sperm count

3
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Clusters of bronchial epithelial cells with vacuolated cytoplasm and ciliated borders are seen in sputum samples from patients with?

A. Lung abscess

B. Anthracosis

C. Bronchial asthma

D. Lung cancer

C. Bronchial asthma

4
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A needle-shaped synovial fluid crystal that appears yellow when aligned with the slow vibration and blue when opposite the slow vibration of the compensator is identified as:

A. MSU

B. CPPD

C. Apatite

D. Cholesterol

A. MSU

5
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Which of the following FLM tests uses the platelet channel of a hematology analyzer?

A. Microviscosity

B. Amniostat-FLM

C. L/S ratio

D. Lamellar body count

D. Lamellar body count

6
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Which of the following is useful in classifying a peritoneal effusion as a transudate?

A. F:S LD ratio > 0.6

B. F:S cholesterol ratio > 0.3

C. WBC count > 1, 000/µL

D. Serum:ascites albumin gradient >1.1

D. Serum:ascites albumin gradient >1.1

7
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Which of the following is associated with chronic polyhydramnios?

A. Hydrops fetalis

B. Fetal heart failure

C. Fetal edema

D. Poor fetal swallowing

D. Poor fetal swallowing

8
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The following may be used to differentiate chylous from pseudochylous materials except:

A. triglyceride measurement

B. cholesterol crystals

C. Sudan staining

D. hematocrit

D. hematocrit

9
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Which of the following crystals is associated with osteoarthritis?

A. Calcium oxalate

B. Cholesterol

C. Corticosteroid

D. Basic calcium phosphate

D. Basic calcium phosphate

10
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Which of the following fecal tests requires a patient to be on a meat-free diet for at least 3 days?

A. Guaiac FOBT

B. Immunochemical FOBT

C. Apt test

D. Trypsin screening

A. Guaiac FOBT

11
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Blood-streaked amniotic fluid is observed in:

1. Traumatic tap

2. Abdominal trauma

3. Intraamniotic hemorrhage

4. Erythroblastosis fetalis

A. 1 and 3

B. 2 and 4

C. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

C. 1, 2, and 3

12
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About two-thirds of semen volume is produced in the?

A. Seminal vesicles

B. Vas deferens

C. Epididymis

D. Prostate gland

A. Seminal vesicles

13
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A positive stool lactoferrin agglutination immunoassay indicates the presence of:

A. Fecal fats

B. rotavirus

C. Muscle fibers

D. Neutrophils

D. Neutrophils

14
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What sperm function test should be ordered following an abnormal sperm motility test with a normal sperm count?

A. Neutral α-glucosidase test

B. Fructose level determination

C. Test for female antisperm antibodies

D. Eosin-nigrosin staining

D. Eosin-nigrosin staining

15
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If serum albumin is 4.0 g/dL and the ascites albumin is 3.2 g/dL, the effusion is most likely?

A. Transudate due to cirrhosis

B. Exudate due to cirrhosis

C. Exudate due to peritonitis

D. Transudate due to peritonitis

C. Exudate due to peritonitis

16
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Which of the following is consistent with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis?

A. Increased lymphocyte count ESCONDE

B. Positive India ink

C. Lactate >35 mg/dL

D. Increased glucose level

C. Lactate >35 mg/dL

17
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The most representative type of stool specimen for quantitative fecal fat determination is:

A. 5-h stool

B. Random

C. First morning

D. 3-day stool

D. 3-day stool

18
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An APT test that remains pink after addition of NaOH indicates the presence of:

A. Fetal blood

B. Maternal blood

C. Porphyrins

D. Denatured hemoglobin

A. Fetal blood

19
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In the diagnosis of pancreatic insufficiency, stool is mixed with eosin to demonstrate:

A. Fecal neutrophils

B. Undigested muscle fibers

C. Vegetable fibers

D. Neutral fats

B. Undigested muscle fibers

20
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Calculate the total sperm count given the following data: number of cells counted in 5 RBC squares per side = 95 and 85; volume = 3 mL; dilution = 1:20.

A. 90 million/mL

B. 270 million/mL

C. 90 million/mm3

D. 270 million/ejaculate

D. 270 million/ejaculate

21
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Abnormalities in the acrosomal cap primarily affect:

A. Motility

B. Tail movement

C. Membrane integrity

D. Ovum penetration

D. Ovum penetration

22
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Which of the following tests correlates with the severity of HDN?

A. ↑ A410 nm

B. A450 nm

C. OD650 nm

D. maternal serum AFP

B. A450 nm

23
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A firm mucin clot in Ropes' test for synovial fluid indicates the presence of normal amounts of

A. Total protein

B. Fibrinogen

C. Hyaluronate

D. Uric acid

C. Hyaluronate

24
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Which of the following is associated with eosinophilic pleocytosis in CSF?

A. Viral meningitis

B. Multiple sclerosis

C. Bacterial meningitis

D. Intracranial shunts

D. Intracranial shunts

25
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The CSF tube that should be frozen when analysis will be delayed is

A. Tube 1

B. Tube 2

C. Tube 3

D. Tube 4

A. Tube 1

26
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Which of the following should be added to the synovial fluid prior to the preparation of slide for differential count?

A. Sodium hydroxide

B. Hypotonic saline

C. Hyaluronidase

D. Acetic acid

C. Hyaluronidase

27
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The highest percentage of synovial fluid neutrophils is associated with which type of arthritis?

A. Immunologic

B. Hemorrhagic

C. Septic

D. Noninflammatory

C. Septic

28
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Which of the following cells predominate in the CSF of patients with multiple sclerosis?

A. Neutrophils

B. Plasma cells

C. Macrophages

D. Eosinophils

B. Plasma cells

29
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Which of the following are likely to be seen in CSF following invasive diagnostic procedures?

A. Eosinophils

B. NRBCs

C. Erythrophages

D. Ependymal cells

D. Ependymal cells

30
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Abnormalities in the midpiece of sperm cells primarily affect:

A. Motility

B. viability

C. Membrane integrity

D. Ovum penetration

A. Motility

31
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Which of the following is used as a screening test for pancreatic insufficiency?

A. Apt test

B. Van de Kamer

C. Clinitest

D. Gelatin hydrolysis

D. Gelatin hydrolysis

32
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Which of the following are likely to be seen in a BAL specimen following a recent alveolar hemorrhage?

A. Phagocytosed erythrocytes

B. Hemosiderin-laden macrophages

C. Charcot-Leyden crystals

D. All of these

A. Phagocytosed erythrocytes

33
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Which crystal occurs as colorless needles in urine that tend to form bundles following refrigeration?

A. sulfonamide

B. radiographic dye

C. hippuric acid

D. ampicilin

D. ampicilin

34
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Which of the following tests would be least affected on an unpreserved urine specimen allowed to stand for more than two hours?

A. protein

B. pH

C. glucose

D. bilirubin

A. protein

35
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Which of the following crystals gives a red-purple color with cyanide nitroprusside?

A. cystine

B. calcium oxalate

C. uric acid

D. calcium sulfate

A. cystine

36
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Which of the following are primarily associated with druginduced interstitial nephritis?

A. mononuclear cells

B. pus cells

C. eosinophils

D. dysmorphic RBCs

C. eosinophils

37
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Which of the following substances are endogenous markers?

I. β₂-microglobulin

II. Creatinine

III. Cystatin C

IV. Insulin

A. I and III only

B. II and IV only

C. I, II, and III

D. II, III, and IV

C. I, II, and III

38
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Dilute acetic acid was added to a turbid alkaline urine and after some time the urine became transparent. Which substance is most likely responsible for this observation?

A. Amorphous urate

B. Homogentisic acid

C. Amorphous phosphate

D. Bence-Jones protein

C. Amorphous phosphate

39
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Which specific gravity reading is acceptable if 5% sodium chloride solution is used for calibrating refractometer?

A. 1.000

B. 1.015

C. 1.022

D. 1.035

C. 1.022

40
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The characteristic black urine which results with exposure to air is seen in case of what condition?

A. Alkaptonuria

B. Melanuria

C. Indicanuria

D. Methemoglobinuria

B. Melanuria

41
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An odorless urine can indicate which of the following disorders?

A. Diabetes Mellitus

B. Maple Syrup Urine Disease

C. Acute Interstitial Nephritis

D. Acute Tubular Necrosis

D. Acute Tubular Necrosis

42
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In cases of hemolytic disorders, which of the following is detected within renal tubular epithelial cells?

A. Bilirubin

B. Hemoglobin

C. Hemosiderin

D. Uroerythrin

C. Hemosiderin

43
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Blue-green color of urine may be caused by:

1. Clorets ingestion

2. Argyrol

3. Methocarbamol

4. Phenol derivatives

A. 1 and 3

B. 2 and 4

C. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A. 1 and 3

44
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The absence of bilirubin in urine in the presence of elevated urobilinogen is most often associated with:

A. liver cirrhosis

B. viral hepatitis

C. hemolytic anemia

D. biliary obstruction

C. hemolytic anemia

45
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The metachromatic staining test for mucopolysaccharides in urine utilizes:

A. azure A dye

B. CTAB

C. phenistix

D. nitrosonaphthol

A. azure A dye

46
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Which of the following diseases results in the production and excretion of large amounts of homogentisic acid?

A. melanuria

B. tyrosinuria

C. alkaptonuria

D. maple syrup urine disease

C. alkaptonuria

47
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Elevated urinary levels of 5-HIAA are associated with:

A. Hartnup disease

B. Argentaffinoma

C. Melanoma

D. Abnormal GI bacteria

B. Argentaffinoma

48
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Which set of results in urine glucose testing would be consistent with high levels of ascorbic acid?

A. 1+ RST, negative Clinitest

B. 4+ RST, negative Clinitest

C. Positive RST, negative Clinitest

D. Negative RST, positive Clinitest

D. Negative RST, positive Clinitest

49
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Which of the following colligative properties is not stated correctly?

A. The boiling point is raised by solute

B. The freezing point is raised by solute

C. The vapor pressure is lowered by solute

D. The osmotic pressure is raised by solute

B. The freezing point is raised by solute

50
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Patients with diabetes insipidus tend to produce urine with:

A. Increased volume, decreased specific gravity

B. Increased volume, increased specific gravity

C. Decreased volume, increased specific gravity

D. Decreased volume, decreased specific gravity

A. Increased volume, decreased specific gravity

51
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Identify the following crystals seen in the urine of a patient following ingestion of food preservatives containing benzoic acid

A. Triple phosphate

B. Calcium phosphate

C. Calcium sulfate

D. Hippuric acid

D. Hippuric acid

52
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Trace the path of blood flow into and out of the nephrons:

I. Peritubular capillaries

II. Afferent arteriole

III. Vasa recta

IV. Efferent arteriole

V. Glomerular capillaries

A. II, V, I, III, IV

B. II, V, IV, I, III

C. IV, V, I, III, II

D. IV, V, II, I, III

B. II, V, IV, I, III

53
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What color is observed when nitrosonaphthol reagents are added to urine containing 5-HIAA?

A. yellow

B. red

C. violet

D. blue-green

C. violet

54
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Which of the following renal stones is associated with recurrent UTI and produces a staghorn pattern in radiologic films?

A. Whewellite

B. Cystine

C. Uric acid

D. Struvite

D. Struvite

55
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Which of the following variables is not included in the original Cockcroft-Gault formula for creatinine clearance?

A. Weight in kilograms

B. Urine creatinine in mg/dL

C. Age of the patient

D. 0.85 correction factor for females

B. Urine creatinine in mg/dL

56
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At which point in the nephron is glucose reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate?

A. PCT

B.

C.

D.

57
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A.

B.

C.

D.

58
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A.

B.

C.

D.

59
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A.

B.

C.

D.

60
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A.

B.

C.

D.