Osteomyelitis of the Jaws – Review Flashcards

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A set of 50 Q&A style flashcards covering definitions, pathogenesis, classifications, clinical/radiologic features, special varieties, investigations, and management principles of osteomyelitis of the jaws.

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49 Terms

1
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What is the Latin and Greek derivation of the term “osteomyelitis”?

Osseous (Latin for bone) + osteon (Greek for bone) + myelos (marrow) + itis (inflammation).

2
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Give Laskin’s 1989 definition of osteomyelitis.

An extensive inflammation of a bone involving the cancellous portion, bone marrow, cortex, and periosteum.

3
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Which systemic conditions may compromise host immunity and predispose to osteomyelitis?

Leukemia, severe anemia, malnutrition, AIDS, IV-drug abuse, chronic alcoholism, febrile illnesses, malignancy, autoimmune disease, diabetes mellitus, arthritis, agranulocytosis.

4
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Name two bone disorders that alter vascularity and predispose to osteomyelitis.

Osteoporosis and Paget’s disease (others: fibrous dysplasia, bone malignancy, prior radiation).

5
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List five common etiologic sources of jaw osteomyelitis.

Odontogenic infections, trauma, orofacial infections, hematogenous spread, compound jaw fractures.

6
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According to Marx et al. (1992) which unusual bacteria were identified in refractory osteomyelitis?

Actinomyces, Eikenella, and Arachnia species.

7
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Outline the basic pathogenesis sequence of osteomyelitis.

Bacterial invasion → pus formation → spread → ↑ intramedullary pressure & blood flow → inflammatory response → ↑ periosteal pressure → chronic phase → granulation tissue → bone lysis → sequestrum formation.

8
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What is a ‘sequestrum’?

A piece of devitalized (necrotic) bone separated from the living bone during osteomyelitis.

9
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Hudson’s historic classification divides acute osteomyelitis into which three categories?

Contiguous focus (trauma, surgery, odontogenic), progressive (burns, sinusitis, vascular insufficiency), and hematogenous (metastatic, developing skeleton).

10
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What is Garre’s osteomyelitis?

A chronic, non-suppurative proliferative periostitis with subperiosteal new bone formation, typically in children and young adults.

11
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State two radiographic hallmarks of acute intramedullary osteomyelitis.

Early thinning/blurring of trabeculae and later multiple radiolucencies with irregular (“moth-eaten”) margins.

12
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Which nerve deficit commonly accompanies mandibular acute osteomyelitis?

Paresthesia or loss of sensation of the lower lip due to inferior alveolar nerve involvement.

13
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Describe the classic radiographic appearance of chronic osteomyelitis.

Moth-eaten bone destruction, dense sequestra, and possible “fingerprint” or “orange-peel” subperiosteal new bone.

14
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What is the ‘onion-skin’ appearance and in which condition is it seen?

Multiple periosteal laminations parallel to cortex; characteristic of Garre’s osteomyelitis.

15
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Differentiate focal from diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis by age predilection.

Focal: mainly children/young adults around mandibular molar; Diffuse: more common in older, often edentulous mandibles.

16
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Which radiographic pattern is typical of diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis?

Diffuse patchy sclerosis with a “cotton wool” appearance, often bilateral and poorly defined borders.

17
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How is infantile osteomyelitis (maxillitis of infancy) usually acquired?

Trauma to mucosa during delivery, sinus infection, nasal infection, or hematogenous spread by streptococci/pneumococci.

18
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Give two key clinical signs of infantile osteomyelitis.

Edema of eyelids and swelling/redness below the inner canthus, followed by palatal/alveolar swelling with pus discharge.

19
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List three infectious agents causing specific varieties of osteomyelitis of the jaws.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (tuberculous), Treponema pallidum (syphilitic), Actinomyces israelii (actinomycotic).

20
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Why does actinomycotic osteomyelitis mimic a parotid tumor?

It presents as firm tissue masses with purplish/red areas and draining sinuses near the mandible, resembling parotid swellings.

21
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Name four conventional imaging modalities used to evaluate jaw osteomyelitis.

Intraoral periapical radiograph (IOPA), occlusal radiograph, orthopantomogram (OPG), lateral oblique view.

22
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Which advanced imaging technique can distinguish reparative activity from infection in pediatric osteomyelitis follow-up?

PET/CT scan (proved superior to MRI in Warmann 2011 study).

23
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Outline the pillars of conservative management for osteomyelitis.

Bed rest, rehydration, pain control, and appropriate antimicrobial therapy.

24
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Give three examples of local antibiotic delivery mentioned for osteomyelitis.

Erythromycin, neomycin irrigants, and antibiotic-impregnated beads.

25
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List four common surgical procedures for chronic osteomyelitis.

Incision & drainage, sequestrectomy, saucerization, decortication (others: trephination, resection).

26
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What duration of postsurgical parenteral antibiotics has traditionally been used for chronic osteomyelitis, and why is it questioned?

4–6 weeks; evidence does not prove superiority and penetration into necrotic bone may be limited (Haidar et al. 2010).

27
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Define osteoradionecrosis (ORN).

Exposure of non-viable, non-healing, non-septic irradiated bone that fails to heal without intervention.

28
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List three factors that increase risk for osteoradionecrosis.

High radiation dose (>60 Gy), irradiating a surgical site before healing, combination of external radiation with intraoral implants (plus poor oral hygiene).

29
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Explain the pathogenesis triad leading to ORN (Marx).

Radiation → endarteritis obliterans → hypovascularity, hypoxia, hypocellularity.

30
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Name two key clinical features of osteoradionecrosis.

Persistent exposed bone with painful trismus and foul odor; pathologic fracture may occur in mandible.

31
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What preventive dental measures are recommended BEFORE head-and-neck radiotherapy?

Extract hopeless teeth, restore restorable teeth, fluoride trays, oral hygiene instruction, rounding sharp cusps, eliminate tobacco/alcohol habits.

32
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How often should post-radiotherapy dental evaluations be scheduled?

Every 3–4 months with prophylaxis and topical fluoride applications.

33
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State two contraindications for hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBO).

Untreated pneumothorax and severe COPD (others: acute viral URTI, uncontrolled seizures, malignancy).

34
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How long is a typical HBO ‘dive’ session for ORN management?

90 minutes per session, usually 5 days per week for 30–60 dives.

35
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Which dinosaur provides paleopathologic evidence of osteomyelitis?

Allosaurus fragilis.

36
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Radiographically, which appearance differentiates focal sclerosing osteomyelitis from periapical rarefying lesions?

Intact lamina dura with widened PDL space and smooth sclerotic border blending into surrounding bone.

37
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What is a ‘cloaca’ in chronic osteomyelitis?

A channel through which pus and sequestra drain, seen radiographically as a dark tract through sclerotic bone.

38
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Why are antibiotics alone often insufficient in chronic osteomyelitis?

Bacteria reside in avascular, necrotic bone (sequestra) inaccessible to systemic antibiotics and host defenses.

39
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Which histologic finding is diagnostic of acute osteomyelitis?

Dense infiltration of marrow spaces by polymorphonuclear leukocytes and empty lacunae in sequestrum.

40
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What complication can chronic subperiosteal osteomyelitis of the mandible lead to?

Loss of much of the mandibular body due to poor central blood supply and sequestration.

41
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Name two radiologic differential diagnoses for chronic osteomyelitis involving periosteal bone.

Paget’s disease and fibrous dysplasia (others: osteosarcoma).

42
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How does bisphosphonate therapy benefit diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis?

Reduces pain and analgesic need; may produce long-term symptomatic remission (Kuijpers 2011 study).

43
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What is ‘saucerization’ in osteomyelitis surgery?

Removal of overlying cortical bone to create a saucer-shaped defect, allowing drainage and access for debridement.

44
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Why is mandibular osteomyelitis more common than maxillary?

Denser cortical bone and relatively poorer blood supply make the mandible less capable of combating infection.

45
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Which feature distinguishes syphilitic osteomyelitis clinically?

Progressive course with poor response to standard pyogenic osteomyelitis treatments and potential massive sequestration.

46
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What is the recommended first-line IV antibiotic for infantile osteomyelitis?

High-dose intravenous penicillin, adjusted after culture and sensitivity.

47
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Which imaging modality best depicts early marrow changes in osteomyelitis?

MRI due to high sensitivity for bone marrow edema.

48
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Define ‘involucrum’.

A shell of new bone formed around a sequestrum in chronic osteomyelitis.

49
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What does the Zurich classification of osteomyelitis incorporate?

Clinical picture, radiology, and etiology to guide diagnosis and management.