Pseudomonas & Burkholderia

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Last updated 9:30 AM on 2/25/26
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53 Terms

1
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What is the typical cell morphology and size of Pseudomonas and Burkholderia species?

They are medium-sized Gram-negative rods measuring 0.5-1.0 x 1-5 um

2
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What oxygen requirement category do Pseudomonas and Burkholderia fall into?

They are obligate aerobes that utilize oxidative metabolism.

3
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Which two biochemical tests yield positive results for both Pseudomonas and Burkholderia?

The oxidase test and the catalase test.

4
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Where is Pseudomonas aeruginosa typically found as a commensal organism?

It is a commensal on the skin and mucosal surfaces.

5
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In which specific geographical region is Burkholderia pseudomallei considered a common soil dweller?

It is a soil dweller in tropical regions.

6
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Approximately how long does Burkholderia mallei persist in the environment?

It persists for approximately 6 weeks.

7
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What is the primary physical characteristic used to differentiate Pseudomonas and B. pseudomallei from B. mallei?

Motility, as B. mallei is the non-motile exception.

8
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Describe the specific structure used for motility in Pseudomonas species.

They utilize polar flagella.

9
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According to the diagnostic flow, what is the suspected identity of a non-motile Gram-negative rod from an equine host?

The suspected organism is Burkholderia mallei.

10
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Which temperature and pigment profile confirms the presence of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

Growth at $42^{\circ}C$ combined with the production of blue-green pigment.

11
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How is the colony morphology of Burkholderia pseudomallei described after growth at 42C?

The colonies appear wrinkled with a musty or earthy odor.

12
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Describe the unique odor associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa cultures.

It has a fruity or grape-like odor.

13
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How does the colony morphology of P. aeruginosa differ from B. pseudomallei?

P. aeruginosa produces large, flat colonies with serrated edges, while B. pseudomallei produces wrinkled, rough, yellow-brown colonies.

14
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What is the characteristic appearance of Burkholderia mallei colonies on agar?

They are white and smooth, eventually becoming granular.

15
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Under what condition does Burkholderia mallei show optimal growth on MacConkey agar?

It grows best when the medium is supplemented with glycerol.

16
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Which species is unique in its ability to produce the blue-green pigment known as Pyocyanin?

The unique producer is Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

17
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What is the pathogenic function of Pyocyanin in Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections?

It acts as an iron scavenger and is toxic to the host.

18
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Name the fluorescent pigment found in the Pseudomonas aeruginosa 'pigment arsenal'.

The fluorescent pigment is Pyoverdin.

19
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List the two red or dark pigments produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

The pigments are Pyorubin and Pyomelanin.

20
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How does Exotoxin A contribute to the virulence of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

It inhibits host protein synthesis, leading to cell death.

21
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What is the role of the biofilm (slime layer) in Pseudomonas infections?

It facilitates persistence on surfaces and acts as an anti-phagocytic barrier.

22
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Which enzymes produced by P. aeruginosa are primarily responsible for host tissue damage?

Proteases and elastase.

23
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What condition in sheep is caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa after prolonged rain?

Fleece rot, characterized by green wool discoloration.

24
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What is the typical clinical manifestation of P. aeruginosa infection in canines?

Chronic otitis externa (ear infection).

25
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Which animal species experiences high mortality sepsis and hemorrhagic pneumonia due to P. aeruginosa?

Farmed mink.

26
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With what common source is bovine mastitis caused by Pseudomonas often associated?

It is associated with contaminated wash water or antibiotic tubes.

27
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What is the primary host profile for Burkholderia mallei?

It is an obligate pathogen of Equidae, including horses, mules, and donkeys.

28
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How is Glanders typically transmitted among equine populations?

Through the ingestion of food or water contaminated by nasal discharges.

29
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Describe the 'nasal form' of Glanders.

It involves ulcerative nodules, purulent discharge, and stellate (star-shaped) scarring.

30
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What are the hallmarks of the 'pulmonary form' of Glanders?

Respiratory distress and the formation of tubercle-like lesions in the lungs.

31
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What is the common name for the cutaneous form of Glanders?

The cutaneous form is known as Farcy.

32
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Describe the clinical presentation of 'Farcy' in horses.

It involves lymphangitis and ulcerating nodules along the lymphatic vessels.

33
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What diagnostic agent is used in the field for the Mallein test?

A glycoprotein extract derived from B. mallei.

34
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Where is the Mallein antigen injected during an intradermopalpebral inoculation?

It is injected into the skin of the eyelid.

35
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What constitutes a positive reaction in a Mallein test for Glanders?

The presence of edema and discharge 24 hours after injection.

36
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Which two laboratory tests are used to confirm a positive field Mallein test?

Complement Fixation Test (CFT) and ELISA.

37
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What is the causative agent of the disease Melioidosis?

The causative agent is Burkholderia pseudomallei.

38
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What are the primary environmental reservoirs for Burkholderia pseudomallei?

Soil and surface water, particularly in rice paddies.

39
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How does B. pseudomallei typically enter the host?

Through percutaneous inoculation (cuts), inhalation, or ingestion.

40
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Why is Melioidosis often referred to as 'The Great Mimicker'?

Because its chronic abscesses in various organs can mimic Glanders (Pseudoglanders) or Tuberculosis.

41
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In which organs are visceral abscesses commonly found during Melioidosis?

Common sites include the lungs, spleen, liver, joints, and CNS.

42
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Contrast the primary virulence strategy of Pseudomonas ('The Brute') with Burkholderia ('The Stealth').

Pseudomonas relies on extracellular tissue destruction and biofilms, while Burkholderia uses intracellular survival and cell-to-cell spread.

43
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What mechanism does Burkholderia use for cell-to-cell spread within the host?

It utilizes actin-based motility, similar to Listeria.

44
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Name four intrinsic resistance mechanisms shared by these Gram-negative rods.

Low outer membrane permeability, multi-drug efflux pumps, chromosomal beta-lactamases, and biofilms.

45
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What is the recommended therapeutic protocol for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections?

A combination of an aminoglycoside (e.g., Gentamicin) and a beta-lactam, following mandatory susceptibility testing.

46
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Why is the treatment of Melioidosis considered particularly challenging?

It requires expensive, long-term therapy, and relapses are common.

47
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What is the mandatory control strategy for Glanders in non-endemic areas?

A 'Test and Slaughter' policy.

48
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How is Pseudomonas mastitis controlled in bovine herds?

Through environmental control, specifically the sterilization of water lines.

49
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What is the primary method for preventing sepsis in farmed mink populations?

The use of autogenous bacterins.

50
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Which Burkholderia species is categorized as a Category B Bioterrorism agent?

The non-motile species Burkholderia mallei.

51
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How does the genome of B. mallei compare to that of B. pseudomallei?

The B. mallei genome is smaller because it is host-adapted to Equidae.

52
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Which species acts as a significant environmental reservoir for Melioidosis in tropical regions?

Wild rodents.

53
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Describe the 'Farcy' lesions seen in the cutaneous form of Glanders.

Thickened lymphatic vessels with ulcerating nodules draining yellowish purulent material.

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