Advanced Psychopathology Across the Lifespan

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Last updated 6:36 PM on 4/1/26
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1338 Terms

1
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What is the scientific study of psychological disorders called?

Psychopathology

2
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According to the lecture, what is the primary goal of parsing the umbrella of psychological abnormality into homogenous categories?

To create clinically meaningful categories.

3
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Which historical figure is associated with the phrase "carve nature at its joints" regarding disease entities?

Emil Kraepelin

4
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Karl Jaspers argued that in a psychiatric assessment, except in cases of well-known cerebral changes, _____ is the least relevant factor.

Diagnosis

5
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Contrast Kraepelin and Jaspers regarding the focus of investigation; while Kraepelin sought disease entities, Jaspers focused on the _____ versus the essence of mental illness.

Particulars

6
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The Neo-Kraepelinian school expanded Kraepelin's nosology to include conditions beyond the major _____.

Psychoses

7
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What criticism is leveled against the Neo-Kraepelinian tendency to designate many new disorders as existing?

Nosologomania

8
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According to the Neo-Kraepelinian view, what two factors play significant roles in validating a diagnosis?

Case follow-up and family history.

9
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The Neo-Kraepelinian school rejected the _____ position that every psychiatric illness is unique to the individual.

Psychoanalytic

10
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What set of criteria, proposed after reviewing a thousand articles, suggested that "classification is diagnosis"?

Feighner criteria

11
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According to the Feighner criteria, how should marked differences in outcome be regarded in relation to the original diagnosis?

As a challenge to its validity.

12
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Critics of the Feighner criteria often refer to its specific diagnostic requirements as a _____ approach.

Chinese menu

13
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In Gerald Klerman's nine-point credo, psychiatry is considered a branch of _____.

Medicine

14
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According to Klerman, what kind of boundary exists between the "normal" and the "sick"?

A discrete boundary.

15
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Klerman's credo asserts that the focus of psychiatric physicians should be particularly on the _____ aspects of mental illness.

Biological

16
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Term: Nosology

The branch of medical science dealing with the classification of diseases.

17
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Which model of abnormality equates a disorder with statistical rarity?

Statistical model

18
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The _____ model of abnormality defines a disorder as a biological or evolutionary disadvantage to the person.

Biological

19
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What is the Essentialist view of mental disorders?

The belief that disorders share an underlying essence or property that ties them together.

20
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What is the Nominalist view regarding the concept of "disorder"?

It is a social construction.

21
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Which version of the DSM was published in 1952 and was only 132 pages long?

DSM-I

22
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DSM-III introduced _____ diagnostic criteria, moving away from the narrative descriptions of previous editions.

Operationalized

23
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What approach did DSM-III and DSM-IV use that was subsequently removed in DSM-5?

Multiaxial approach

24
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DSM-III was characterized by _____ agnosticism, meaning it focused on description rather than etiology.

Theoretical

25
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In DSM-5, the age of onset for ADHD was increased from 7 years to _____ years.

12

26
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What controversial exclusion for the diagnosis of Major Depression was removed in the DSM-5?

Bereavement criterion

27
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A major criticism of DSM-5 is its unsupported retention of a _____ model, especially regarding personality disorders.

Categorical

28
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What term describes the concern that DSM-5 lowered diagnostic thresholds, turning normal behaviors into pathologies?

Medicalization of normality

29
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The DSM-5 diagnosis "Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder" is criticized as being a medicalization of _____.

Temper tantrums

30
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In DSM-5, the diagnosis of "Gender Identity Disorder" was changed to _____.

Gender Dysphoria

31
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What term refers to the expansion of diagnostic concepts over time, such as the widening definition of trauma?

Conceptual bracket creep

32
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Which diagnosis from DSM-IV was folded into "Autism Spectrum Disorder" in DSM-5?

Asperger's disorder

33
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The _____ effect in Work Groups can lead to more extreme diagnostic decisions during the DSM revision process.

Group polarization

34
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What ethical principle, meaning "first, do no harm," should guide new iterations of the DSM?

Primum non nocere

35
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Which new diagnosis was introduced in the DSM-5-TR (2022)?

Prolonged grief disorder

36
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What is the primary problem with classifying psychiatric disorders based solely on signs and symptoms, using the "fever" analogy?

Lumping individuals with superficial similarities despite potentially different underlying causes.

37
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What does the acronym RDoC stand for?

Research Domain Criteria

38
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Unlike the categorical DSM, RDoC embraces a _____ system for classification.

Dimensional

39
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RDoC is informed by the study of _____, which are markers of mental disorders lying "beneath the skin."

Endophenotypes

40
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In the RDoC matrix, what are the five primary Domains of analysis?

Negative Valence, Positive Valence, Cognitive, Social Processes, and Arousal/Modulatory Systems.

41
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A study by Hack et al. (2023) used RDoC to identify a _____ biotype of depressed patients who had lower remission rates.

Cognitive

42
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Lilienfeld (2014) criticized RDoC for an overemphasis on _____ units and measures.

Biological

43
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What is the full name of the HiTOP alternative to psychiatric classification?

Hierarchical Taxonomy of Psychopathology

44
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The HiTOP model organizes psychopathology into a hierarchy, starting from specific signs and symptoms up to a _____ factor.

General Psychopathology

45
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Which classification alternative is modeled after oncology and suggests intervening proportionally based on disease progression?

Clinical Staging

46
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According to Robins and Guze (1970), what is the first phase of establishing diagnostic validity?

Clinical description

47
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In the Robins and Guze framework, Phase 3 of diagnostic validity is the _____ from other disorders.

Delimitation

48
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What type of validity assesses how well diagnostic criteria cover all relevant parts of the construct?

Content validity

49
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_____ validity is the degree to which a diagnosis accurately measures the outcome it was designed to measure.

Criterion-related

50
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What are the two subtypes of criterion-related validity?

Predictive validity and concurrent validity.

51
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_____ validity measures the extent to which a diagnosis accurately assesses the underlying concept it is supposed to.

Construct

52
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Within construct validity, _____ validity refers to how well a measure correlates with other measures of the same construct.

Convergent

53
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Within construct validity, _____ validity refers to how well a measure does NOT correlate with measures of different constructs.

Discriminant

54
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What is an "operational definition" in psychopathology?

The specific, concrete, and replicable way a construct is represented or measured.

55
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Though categorical, DSM-5 expanded the use of course, descriptive, and _____ specifiers to move toward dimensionality.

Severity

56
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The lecture poses a question about which is more effective: Clinical judgment or _____ judgment?

Actuarial

57
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What was the specific focus of Kraepelin's original nosology?

Major psychoses (Dementia praecox and Manic-depressive insanity).

58
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According to Jaspers, what should ideally emerge from a psychiatric investigation instead of a diagnostic label?

A process of analysis.

59
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What specific statistical technique is advocated by Klerman's credo for improving diagnostic reliability?

Statistical techniques (unspecified, used in research efforts).

60
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How does a diagnosis assist in nosology?

It allows for the systematic arrangement of conditions in relation to one another.

61
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Robins and Guze (1970) suggested that a diagnosis is a tool that helps researchers _____.

Learn new things.

62
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The "Dysfunction" model of abnormality focuses on the failure of internal mechanisms to perform their _____.

Evolved functions

63
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Describe the length of DSM-II compared to DSM-I.

It was similar in approach and scope.

64
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What term describes the DSM-III practice of using algorithms or decision rules for making a diagnosis?

Decision rules

65
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What was a major reason given for the controversy surrounding the retention of the categorical model for personality disorders in DSM-5?

It was considered unsupported (vs. a dimensional model).

66
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Extensive _____ in DSM-5 suggests that categorical systems might be attaching multiple labels to a single underlying dimensional condition.

Comorbidity

67
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The DSM-5 task force originally intended to move toward a classification system based on _____.

Etiology (or Biology)

68
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According to the DSM-5-TR, where did most of the updates occur if the diagnostic criteria remained largely the same?

Prevalence, risk/prognostic factors, and culture/gender-related issues.

69
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What are "Markers" of mental disorders that lie beneath the surface, such as smooth pursuit eye movement, called?

Endophenotypes

70
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In the Hack et al. (2023) study, which two cognitive domains were impaired in the "cognitive biotype" of depression?

Executive function and response inhibition.

71
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One criticism of RDoC is its neglect of _____ error in measurement.

Psychometric (or Measurement)

72
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Clinical staging in psychopathology aims to reduce the risk of _____ of the disease through early intervention.

Extension

73
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Which phase of Robins and Guze's validity framework involves using family studies to validate a diagnosis?

Phase 5

74
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Phase 2 of the Robins and Guze validity framework involves searching for _____ findings.

Laboratory

75
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The "Subjective distress" model of abnormality defines disorder based on the _____.

Individual's internal experience of suffering.

76
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What cognitive bias involves the tendency to search for information that supports one's prior beliefs during the diagnostic process?

Confirmation bias

77
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Concept: Nominalist View

Definition: The perspective that diagnostic categories are social constructions rather than naturally occurring entities.

78
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Process: Establishing Diagnostic Validity (Phase 4)

Action: Conduct a follow-up study to see if the diagnosis remains stable over time.

79
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How does the provided text define 'culture'?

A group's particular interpretative system, including their understanding of mind/body functioning, healing traditions, religion, and social/economic structures.

80
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Which axis of the DSM-IV allowed for the inclusion of cultural considerations and psychosocial stressors?

Axis IV

81
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What was the unintentional effect of deleting Axis IV in the DSM-5?

It deemphasized psychosocial stressors that disproportionately affect cultural minorities.

82
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What is the primary focus of the DSM-5 Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI)?

Individual experience and social context.

83
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In the DSM-5, what term replaced 'culture-bound syndromes'?

Cultural concepts of distress

84
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Term: Cultural syndromes

Definition: Clusters of symptoms and attributions that tend to co-occur in individuals of a specific cultural group.

85
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Term: Cultural idioms of distress

Definition: Collective, shared ways of experiencing and talking about personal or social concerns.

86
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How are 'cultural explanations of distress' defined?

Perceived causes or meanings provided for symptoms within a specific culture.

87
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What is a culture-related diagnostic feature of Social Anxiety Disorder mentioned in the text?

The belief that one's gaze upsets others, causing them to look away.

88
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In the CFI, what is the 'Explanatory Model' used to elicit?

The individual's view of core problems and their own way of understanding the problem.

89
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According to the CFI, what should a clinician do if a patient mentions only medical diagnoses or symptoms as their problem?

Probe for how the individual would describe the problem in their own way.

90
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Which section of the CFI asks: 'Why do you think this is happening to you?'

Cultural Perceptions of Cause, Context, and Support.

91
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What are the two sub-categories of 'Cultural Perceptions of Cause, Context, and Support' in the CFI?

Causes; Stressors and Supports.

92
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In the CFI, what is the goal of asking about 'Stressors and Supports'?

To elicit information on the individual's life context, focusing on resources, social supports, resilience, and environment.

93
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What specific aspect of identity does the CFI probe for when asking about clinical worsening?

Discrimination (e.g., due to migration status, race/ethnicity, or sexual orientation).

94
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Which CFI section explores 'conflict across generations or due to gender roles'?

Role of Cultural Identity

95
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The CFI section 'Cultural Factors Affecting Self-Coping and Past Help Seeking' includes which three sub-topics?

Self-Coping, Past Help Seeking, and Barriers.

96
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In the CFI, what does 'Self-Coping' refer to?

What the individual has done on their own to deal with or cope with the problem.

97
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What are examples of 'Past Help Seeking' sources mentioned in the CFI?

Medical care, support groups, folk healing, religious/spiritual counseling, or alternative healing.

98
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What are examples of 'Barriers' to help seeking in the CFI?

Money, work/family commitments, stigma, discrimination, or lack of services in the patient's language.

99
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Which CFI section addresses perceived racism or language barriers between the doctor and patient?

Clinician-Patient Relationship

100
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Term: Stigma

Definition: A mark of disgrace associated with a particular circumstance, quality, or person.

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