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170. What is the condition that may occur when gusts cause a swept wing type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other?
A. Wingover.
B. Mach buffet.
C. Dutch roll.
C. Dutch roll.
171. A jet airplane operating at a cruise speed of .75 Mach with outside air temperature of -42 degrees C has a true airspeed of
A. 429 knots.
B. 446 knots.
C. 455 knots.
B. 446 knots.
172. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft?
A. Immediately after ground contact.
B. Immediately prior to touchdown.
C. After applying maximum wheel braking.
A. Immediately after ground contact.
173. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping?
A. Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases.
B. Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown.
C. Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines.
B. Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown.
174. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where
A. the airplane rides on standing water.
B. a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.
C. the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber.
B. a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.
175. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway?
A. At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs.
B. At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning.
C. At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning.
B. At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning.
176. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI?
A. 90 knots.
B. 96 knots.
C. 110 knots.
B. 96 knots.
177. At what minimum speed will dynamic hydroplaning begin if a tire has an air pressure of 70 PSI?
A. 85 knots.
B. 80 knots.
C. 75 knots.
C. 75 knots.
178. Which term describes the hydroplaning which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction?
A. Reverted rubber hydroplaning.
B. Dynamic hydroplaning.
C. Viscous hydroplaning.
A. Reverted rubber hydroplaning.
179. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?
A. Apply full main wheel braking only.
B. Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly.
C. Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage.
C. Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage.
180. What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplaning?
A. No effect on hydroplaning, but increases landing roll.
B. Reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking is applied.
C. Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking.
C. Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking.
181. Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?
A. Decreased stall speed.
B. Decreased pitchup tendencies.
C. Decreased angle of attack for stalls.
C. Decreased angle of attack for stalls.
182. Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?
A. Increased stall speed.
B. Increased pitchdown tendencies.
C. Increased angle of attack for stalls.
A. Increased stall speed.
183. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and
A. Increased thrust.
B. A decreased stall speed.
C. An increased stall speed.
C. An increased stall speed.
184. Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can
A. Reduce lift by as much as 40 percent and increase drag by 30 percent.
B. Reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.
C. Increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 40 percent.
B. Reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.
185. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids used for deicing
A. Provide ice protection during flight.
B. Are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only.
C. On the ground cause no performance degradation during takeoff.
B. Are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only.
186. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids are highly soluble in water; however,
A. Ice is slow to absorb it but fast to melt when in contact with FPD.
B. Ice absorbs it very fast but is slow to melt when in contact with it.
C. Ice is slow to absorb it, and to melt when in contact with it.
C. Ice is slow to absorb it, and to melt when in contact with it.
187. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades
A. Can increase performance and cause stalls or surges.
B. Could cause FPD vapors to enter the aircraft but would have no effect on engine thrust or power.
C. Can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls.
C. Can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls.
188. What is the effect of Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades?
A. It could cause FPD vapors to enter the aircraft but would have no effect on engine thrust or power.
B. It can increase performance and cause stalls or surges.
C. It can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls.
C. It can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls.
189. The practice developed and accepted by the North American air carrier industry using traditional North American fluids is to ensure that the freeze point of the remaining film is below ambient temperature by at least
A. 10°F.
B. 20°F.
C. 20°C.
B. 20°F.
190. Anti-icing fluid should provide freezing point protection to
A. -20°F ambient temperature.
B. 32°F outside temperature or below.
C. A freezing point no greater than 20°F below the ambient or airplane surface temperature.
C. A freezing point no greater than 20°F below the ambient or airplane surface temperature.
191. Snow on top of deicing or anti-icing fluids
A. Need not be considered as adhering to the aircraft.
B. Must be considered as adhering to the aircraft.
C. Must be considered as adhering to the aircraft, but a safe takeoff can be made as it will blow off.
B. Must be considered as adhering to the aircraft.
192. The purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing fluid with water in non-precipitation conditions is to
A. Raise the eutectic point.
B. Decrease the freeze point.
C. Increase the minimum freezing point (onset of crystallization).
B. Decrease the freeze point.
193. What is the minimum glycol content of Type 1 deicing/anti-icing fluid?
A. 30 percent.
B. 50 percent.
C. 80 percent.
C. 80 percent.
194. What is the minimum glycol content of Type 2 deicing/anti-icing fluid?
A. 30 percent.
B. 50 percent.
C. 80 percent.
B. 50 percent.
195. Which is a disadvantage of the one-step over the two-step process when deicing/anti-icing an airplane?
A. It is more complicated.
B. The holding time is increased.
C. More fluid is used with the one-step method when large deposits of ice and snow must be flushed off airplane surfaces.
C. More fluid is used with the one-step method when large deposits of ice and snow must be flushed off airplane surfaces.
196. Which procedure increases holding time when deicing/anti-icing an airplane using a two-step process?
A. Heated Type 1 fluid followed by cold Type 2 fluid.
B. Cold Type 2 fluid followed by hot Type 2 fluid.
C. Heated Type 1 or 2 fluid followed by cold Type 1 fluid.
A. Heated Type 1 fluid followed by cold Type 2 fluid.
197. Which of the following will decrease the holding time during anti-icing using a two-step process?
A. Apply heated Type 2 fluid.
B. Decrease the water content.
C. Increase the viscosity of Type 1 fluid.
A. Apply heated Type 2 fluid.
198. What should the deice/anti-ice fluid temperature be during the last step of a two-phase process?
A. Hot.
B. Warm.
C. Cold.
C. Cold.
199. Deicing procedures and equipment developed for large transport airplanes
A. Will not be appropriate for the smaller aircraft, used under FAR Part 135.
B. Will be appropriate for all of the smaller aircraft, used under FAR Part 135.
C. May not be appropriate for some of the smaller aircraft, used under FAR Part 135.
C. May not be appropriate for some of the smaller aircraft, used under FAR Part 135.
200. During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected?
A. Increase in indicated airspeed.
B. Decrease in indicated airspeed.
C. Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing.
B. Decrease in indicated airspeed.
201. What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice?
A. The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter.
B. The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude.
C. No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents.
A. The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter.
202. If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected?
A. No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made.
B. Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb.
C. Constant indicated airspeed during a descent.
A. No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made.
203. How will the airspeed indicator react if the ram air input to the pitot head is blocked by ice, but the drain hole and static port are not?
A. Indication will drop to zero.
B. Indication will rise to the top of the scale.
C. Indication will remain constant but will increase in a climb.
A. Indication will drop to zero.
204. When setting the altimeter, pilots should disregard
A. Effects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures and pressures.
B. Corrections for static pressure systems.
C. Corrections for instrument error.
A. Effects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures and pressures.
205. Moving map displays
A. May or may not be accurate.
B. Are certified to be accurate on a small scale setting.
C. Are very accurate and require no current chart overlays for precise navigation.
A. May or may not be accurate.
206. The message "NAV service not communicating" on a moving map display means that the
A. NAV source will be reset when the message is acknowledged.
B. Selected NAV source is not publishing data to the display.
C. GPS is inoperative.
B. Selected NAV source is not publishing data to the display.
207. An airspeed vertical tape display
A. Is blank if the aircraft is in icing condition.
B. Will freeze when a stall is encountered.
C. Scrolls down to show an increase in airspeed.
C. Scrolls down to show an increase in airspeed.
208. You see the indication in the figure on your PFD, but your standby indicator reads 120 knots and the power is set for 120-knot cruise in level flight. You decide the
Figure 498. - Glass Cockpit - Airspeed Tape.
A. pitot tube may be plugged with ice or a bug.
B. standby indicator is defective because there is no red 'X' on the speed tape display.
C. airspeed means attitude is incorrect.
A. pitot tube may be plugged with ice or a bug.
209. The MFD in the figure has lost
Figure 499. - Glass Cockpit - Multi-Function Display (MFD).
A. TCAS information.
B. position information.
C. contact with the ADC.
B. position information.
210. Automated flight decks or cockpits
A. enhance basic pilot flight skills.
B. decrease the work load in terminal areas.
C. often create much larger pilot errors than traditional cockpits.
B. decrease the work load in terminal areas.
211. Automation has been found to
A. create much larger errors at times.
B. improve crew situational awareness skills.
C. substitute for a lack of aviation experience.
A. create much larger errors at times.
212. Automation has been found to
A. create higher workloads in terminal areas.
B. improve crew situational awareness skills.
C. substitute for a lack of aviation experience.
A. create higher workloads in terminal areas.