NHA ExCPT Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam Practice Questions and Answers

What medications can be refilled through an auto refill program?

a) Birth control

b) Anticoagulants

c) Hypertensives

d) All of the above

d) All of the above

Translate sig code "ii gtts ou qid"

a) Instill 2 drops in both ears every day.

b) Instill 2 drops in both eyes 4 times a day.

c) Instill 2 drops in the left eye 4 times a day.

d) Instill 2 drops in the right ear every other day.

b) Instill 2 drops in both eyes 4 times a day.

How many C-II controlled substances can you order on DEA-222?

a) 5

b) 10

c) 15

d) 20

d) 20

True or False: The person responsible for receiving orders should be different from the person who submitted the order.

a) True

b) False

a) True

What should you verify when receiving a shipment?

a) Supplier name

b) Supplier address

c) Quantity of the order received

d) All of the above

d) All of the above

Most pharmacies have a policy to pull medications that expire in ___ months or less.

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 6

c) 3

Which of the following on a drug manufacturer's label is best used to identify a medication that has been recalled?

a) Serial number

b) Bar code

c) Expiration date

d) Lot number

d) Lot number

Who publishes the official list of hazardous drugs in the health care setting?

a) BOP

b) FDA

c) NIOSH

d) ASHP

c) NIOSH

Which of the following USP chapters addresses hazardous medication handling in the health care setting?

a) 800

b) 791

c) 795

d) 797

a) 800

Convert 86* F to Celsius

a) 45* C

b) 24* C

c) 60* C

d) 30* C

d) 30* C

In a digoxin overdose emergency, it is critical to know that digoxin immune fab (Digibind) -the antidote for digoxin- is stored in which area?

a) The freezer

b) Refrigerator

c) Room temperature shelf

d) None of the above

b) Refrigerator

A vial of insulin R was removed from the refrigerator to compound an IV bag on April 1. On which of the following dates will the vial need to be discarded if stored at room temperature?

a) April 29

b) April 8

c) May 1

d) The expiration date printed on the vial

a) April 29

True or False: The FDA is the only organization that can issue a medication recall.

a) True

b) False

b) False

(A medication manufacturer can voluntarily recall a medication and take it off the market)

Which one of the following is a P-listed medication?

a) Benzoyl alcohol

b) Cyclophosphamide

c) Warfarin

d) Albuterol inhalers

c) Warfarin

What Schedule does morphine, methadone, fentanyl and methamphetamine belong to?

a) C-I

b) C-II

c) C-III

d) C-IV

b) C-II

When checking a DEA #, which set of numbers do you multiply by 2?

a) The first, third, and fifth numbers

b) The second, fourth, and sixth numbers

b) The second, fourth, and sixth numbers

True or False: C-II prescriptions can be refilled.

a) True

b) False

b) False

How long must pharmacies keep records of controlled substances?

a) 1 year

b) 2 years

c) 3 years

d) 4 years

b) 2 years

True or False: C-II records may be filed with all other records.

a) True

b) False

b) False

How much pseudoephedrine can be purchased in a calendar day?

a) 7g

b) 9g

c) 3g

d) 3.6g

d) 3.6g

True or False: C-1 substances can be ordered using DEA-222

a) True

True or False: DEA-222 is necessary to order C-III through C-V medications.

a) True

b) False

b) False

C-III through C-V do not need DEA-222 forms to be filled out.

What form must be filled out to dispose of a controlled substance?

a) DEA-222

b) DEA-224

c) DEA-41

d) DEA-225

c) DEA-41

What year was the Durham-Humphrey Amendment created?

a) 1906

b) 1914

c) 1951

d) 1962

c) 1951

Which act requires pharmacists to counsel patients on new prescriptions for Medicaid patients?

a) OBRA '90

b) 1914 Harrison Narcotics Act

c) 1906 Pure Food and Drug Act

d) 1938 Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

a) OBRA '90

What is the generic name of Synthroid?

a) Lisinopril

b) Metformin

c) Gabapentin

d) Levothyroxine

d) Levothyroxine

What is the generic name for Xanax?

a) Prednisone

b) Atorvastatin

c) Alprazolam

d) Amlodipine

c) Alprazolam

What is the therapeutic action of ACE Inhibitors?

a) Delaying blood clotting

b) Preventing or treating seizures

c) Lowering blood pressure

d) Relieving diarrhea

c) Lowering blood pressure

What is the therapeutic action of Antiemetics?

a) Reducing fever

b) Preventing/Relieving nausea, vomiting

c) Regulating heart rate

d) Preventing and treating bone density loss

b) Preventing/Relieving nausea, vomiting

What is the therapeutic action of Calcium channel blockers?

a) Reducing nasal congestion

b) Regulating body functions

c) Reducing thyroid hormone excess

d) Reducing the heart's workload

d) Reducing the heart's workload

What is the therapeutic action of Lipid-lowering agents?

a) Reducing cholesterol

b) Reducing inflammation

c) Relieving pain

d) Promoting sleep

a) Reducing cholesterol

Which of the following are parenteral routes of administration?

a) Subcutaneous

b) Intravenous

c) Intramuscular

d) All of the above

d) All of the above

What is the indication for Abilify?

a) Hypertension, angina

b) Anxiety and panic disorders

c) Bipolar disorder, schizophrenia

d) Elevated cholesterol levels

c) Bipolar disorder, schizophrenia

What is the generic name for Zithromax?

a) Diphenhydramine

b) Azithromycin

c) Dimenhydrinate

d) Cetirizine

b) Azithromycin

What is the indication for Carvedilol (Coreg)?

a) Hypertension, heart failure

b) Elevated cholesterol levels

c) Moderate to severe pain

d) Fungal infections

a) Hypertension, heart failure,

What is the indication for Glipizide (Glucotrol)?

a) Glaucoma

b) Arthritis inflammation, pain

c) Diabetes mellitus

d) Excess stomach acid, esophageal erosion

c) Diabetes mellitus

What is an adverse effect of Acetaminophen (Tylenol)?

a) Liver damage

b) Diarrhea

c) Seizures

d) Cough, low blood pressure

a) Liver damage

What is an adverse effect of Morphine (MS Contin)?

a) Headache, rapid heart rate

b) Nausea, diplopia (double vision)

c) Constipation, respiratory depression

d) Dizziness, drowsiness

c) Constipation, respiratory depression

Which of the following are characteristics of incompatibilities in compounded medications?

a) Discoloration

b) Separation

c) Uncharacteristic Odor

d) All of the above

d) All of the above

True or False: Manufacturer's package inserts clearly warn about incompatibilities.

a) True

b) False

a) True

A woman comes to the pharmacy during influenza season with her two children and asks if all three of them can get the immunization. Which of the following family members should you identify as not eligible for the immunization?

a) The 12-year-old child

b) The 4-month-old infant

c) The woman

d) All of three of them can get the immunization

b) The 4-month-old infant

A patient comes to the pharmacy asking if they can receive the pneumonia vaccine. You note that the patient is 54 years old. What should you do next?

a) Ask the patient if he has any chronic illnesses

b) Tell the patient that the vaccine is for patients over the age of 64

c) Tell the patient the pharmacist will give him the immunization

d) None of the above

a) Ask the patient if he has any chronic illnesses

Translate this sig code: i tsp q4-6h prn

a) Take 1 tablespoon every 4-6 hours as needed

b) Take 1 teaspoon every other day as needed

c) Take 1 teaspoon every 4-6 hours as needed

d) Take 1 teaspoon every 4-6 hours

c) Take 1 teaspoon every 4-6 hours as needed

A patient requests a refill for hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Vicodin) prescription. Which of the following actions should a pharmacy technician take?

a) Inform the patient that their provider will need to submit a new prescription

b) Process and fill the refill for the patient

c) Contact the prescriber for a refill

d) Add a one-time emergency refill to the prescription

a) Inform the patient that their provider will need to submit a new prescription

A pharmacy technician is entering a new patient profile into an electronic record. The patient states that they have a penicillin allergy. Which of the following information about the patient's allergy should the technician include in the record?

a) Name of prescriber aware of penicillin allergy

b) Reaction to taking penicillin

c) Family history of reactions to penicillin

d) Date diagnosed with penicillin allergy

b) Reaction to taking penicillin

A patient presents a pharmacy technician with a prescription that indicates the prescriber has authorized a generic substitution/ However, the patient requests no generic substitution. Which of the following DAW codes should the technician use when entering this prescription in the computer?

a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3

c) 2

Which of the following is not considered a HIPAA-covered entity?

a) Health care provider

b) Family member

c) Health plan

d) Health care clearinghouse

b) Family member

A stat dose needs to be delivered within ___ minutes.

a) 5

b) 10

c) 15

d) 20

b) 10 minutes

Which Act established the Drug Enforcement Administration?

a) 1938 Federal Food, Drug, & Cosmetic Act

b) 1970 Poison Prevention and Packaging Act

c) 1914 Harrison Narcotics Act

d) 1970 Controlled Substance Act

d) 1970 Controlled Substance Act

Which Pregnancy Category states there is positive evidence of the risk of using the drug outweigh the benefit?

a) Category X

b) Category D

c) Category C

d) Category B

a) Category X

On The Joint Commission's "Do Not Use" List, the abbreviation Q.D., QD, qd, or q.d. must be written as

a) Each day

b) Every day

c) Daily

d) As directed

c) Daily

The three major broad categories of dosage forms are:

a) Capsules, tablets, and liquids

b) Solids, semisolids, and liquids

c) Oral, topical, and IV

d) Extended-release, liquids, and tablets

b) Solids, semisolids, and liquids

Every parenteral injectable medication has ________% bioavailability.

a) 100

b) 75

c) 50

d) 25

a) 100

Convert 45* C to Fahrenheit

a) 22.5* F

b) 90* F

c) 7.2* F

d) 113* F

d) 113* F

A provider orders an antibiotic of 250mg caps QID x10 days. How many capsules will you dispense to the patient? (250mg capsules on hand)

a) 140 capsules

b) 40 capsules

c) 28 capsules

d) 10 capsules

b) 40 capsules

How many kilograms will a patient weigh if they are 250 pounds?

a) 113.6 kg

b) 125 kg

c) 550 kg

d) 500 kg

a) 113.6 kg

What is the volume of a medication order for 25mg when you have on stock a concentration of 40mg/mL?

a) 0.16 mL

b) 0.625 mL

c) 1,000 mL

d) 10 mL

b) 0625 mL

A patient weighs 150lbs. A provider orders a drug at 250mg/kg/dose. What will the new strength be of the drug?

a) 37,500 mg

b) 17,025 mg

c) 82,500 mg

d) 330 mg

b) 17,025 mg

Heparin 4,000 units is ordered, on stock you have 10,000 units/mL. How much Heparin is needed for the patient?

a) 0.4 mL

b) 400 mL

c) 40,000 mL

d) 2.5 mL

a) 0.4 mL

An order for a 1,000mL bag of NaCl is to run for 5 hours. How many milliliters per hour will the patient receive?

a) 200 mL/hr

b) 150 mL/hr

c) 2.08 mL/hr

d) 3.125 mL/hr

a) 200 mL/hr

Using the same order as above, how many milliliters per minute (mL/min) will the patient receive?

a) 125 mL/min

b) 2.08 mL/min

c) 3.3 mL/min

d) 0.25 mL/min

c) 3.3 mL/min

Using the same order as above, how many milliliters per minute (mL/min) will the patient receive?

a) 2.08gtt/min

b) 33.3gtt/min

c) 7.2gtt/min

d) 0.25gtt/min

b) 33.3gtt/min

Medications that have the suffix -prazole in the generic version belong to which classification?

a) Antifungal

b) H2 receptor antagonist

c) Calcium Carbonate

d) Proton Pump Inhibitor

d) Proton Pump Inhibitor

Diflucan, Nizoral, Monistat belong to which drug classification?

a) Antifungal

c) Antiviral

d) Antiparasitic

a) Antifungal

How many days will a 5mL bottle of timolol 0.5% ophthalmic solution last when the SIG is: 1gtt OU BID? (Assume 20gtts/ml).

a) 12 days

b) 15 days

c) 25 days

d) 30 days

c) 25 days

USP <797> regulations state that sterile compounding must take place within a ______ or better clean room.

a) ISO Class 1

b) ISO Class 2

c) ISO Class 8

d) ISO Class 9

c) ISO Class 8

Which hood type is a closed system & offers the most amount of protection with hazardous sterile compounds?

a) Horizontal flow-hood

b) Glove box

c) Vertical flow-hood

d) Biological Safety Cabinet

b) Glove box

Epinephrine is used to treat which emergency situation:

a) Anaphylaxis

b) Bacterial meningitis

c) Cardiac Arrest

d) A & C

d) A & C

The work performed in a horizontal flow hood must be within _____ inches inside of the hood.

a) 4

b) 6

c) 8

d) 10

b) 6

The drug warfarin can interact with which vitamin in order to counteract its activity?

a) Vitamin A

b) Vitamin B

c) Vitamin K

d) Vitamin C

c) Vitamin K

Which agent neutralizes the production of acid in the stomach?

a) Antacid

b) H2 antagonist

c) PPI

d) A & C

b) H2 antagonist

The required auxiliary label for an antibiotic suspension treatment of strep throat is:

a) Take with food

b) Shake well

c) Take until gone

d) Take at the same time every day

c) Take until gone

Medications that are frequently prescribed and dispensed are shelved in which area?

a) Fast mover

b) Common area

c) Locked cabinet

d) Slow mover

a) Fast mover

Which herbal supplement can be used to treat hypertension?

a) Garlic

b) Ginko

c) Ginger

d) Ginseng

a) Garlic

5-Alpha reductase inhibitors are used in the treatment of:

a) Hypogonadism

b) Infertility

c) Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

d) Oliguri

c) Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

What medication is used to treat an overdose of either Heparin or Lanoxin?

a) Vitamin K

b) Pradaxa

c) Warfarin

d) Protamine sulfate

d) Protamine sulfate

What are the average respiratory rates?

a) 12 to 18 breaths/min (adult)

b) 8 to 12 breaths/min (6- to 12-y.o.)

c) 30 to 60 breaths/ min (birth to 1-y.o.)

d) A & C

d) A & C

Agents that break up mucous secretions & enable them to be expelled through coughing are:

a) Decongestants

b) Antitussives

c) Expectorants

d) A and C

c) Expectorants

Which layer of the heart facilitates a heartbeat?

a) Myocardium

b) Endocardium

c) Epicardium

d) Pericardium

a) Myocardium

The frequent side effect of ACE-I inhibitors that causes most patients to switch to a different medication is:

a) Diarrhea

b) Dry, hacking cough

c) GI upset

d) Nausea

b) Dry, hacking cough

The safest daily maximum dose of acetaminophen for healthy adults is _________ milligrams?

a) 1,000

b) 2,000

c) 3,000

d) 4,000

d) 4,000

Which of the following drugs require the auxiliary label: "Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the patient for whom it was prescribed."

a) Ritalin

b) Strattera

c) Vyvanse

d) A & C

d) A & C

Citalopram, escitalopram, fluoxetine and sertraline can be prescribed to treat which condition?

a) Anxiety

b) Depression

c) Bipolar

d) Schizophrenia

b) Depression

When a generic medication ends with the suffix -olol they belong to which medication class?

a) Alpha blocker

b) ACE inhibitor

c) Beta-blocker

d) Statin

c) Beta-Blocker

When a generic medication ends with the suffix

-prazole they belong to which medication class?

a) Alpha blocker

b) Antibiotic

c) ACE inhibitor

d) Proton Pump Inhibitor

d) Proton Pump Inhibitor

When a generic medication ends with the suffix

-azepam they belong to which medication class?

a) Benzodiazepine

b) ACE inhibitor

c) Antibiotic

d) Antiviral

a) Benzodiazepine

When a generic medication ends with Vir-, -vir-, -vir they belong to which medication class?

a) Beta-blocker

b) Antibiotics

c) ACE inhibitor

d) Antiviral

d) Antiviral

Cimetidine, famotidine and ranitidine belong to which class of medications used to treat GERD?

a) Histamine 2 antagonist

b) Monoclonal antibodies

c) Proton Pump Inhibitor

d) Antihistamine

a) Histamine 2 antagonist

Anabolic steroids, ketamine, suboxone & APAP/codeine belong to which controlled substance schedule?

a) Schedule 1

b) Schedule 2

c) Schedule 3

d) Schedule 4

c) Schedule 3

Medications must have what type of solubility in order to cross the blood-brain barrier?

a) Water

b) Fat

c) Depolarized

d) Polarized

b) Fat

Citalopram, escitalopram, fluoxetine and sertraline can be prescribed to treat which condition?

a) Anxiety

b) Depression

c) Bipolarism

d) Schizophrenia

b) Depression

What percentage and kind of alcohol is used to disinfect a laminar airflow hood?

a) 50% isopropyl alcohol

b) 70% isopropyl alcohol

c) 99% isopropyl alcohol

d) 99% ethylene

b) 70% isopropyl alcohol

Naloxone is used for which emergency condition:

a) Respiratory depression

b) Opioid overdose

c) Arrhythmia

d) Cardiac arrest

b) Opioid overdose

An ASAP order:

a) Be put front of new orders.

b) May contain discrepancies

c) Should be quickly processed.

d) All the above

d) All the above

When the FDA agrees that a brand name drug is equivalent to a generic drug the term is referred to as:

a) Bioequivalence

b) Therapeutic equivalence

c) Duplicate therapy

d) Actual equivalence

a) Bioequivalence

Which of the following are ways a drug may be eliminated from the body?

a) Urine & fecal matter

b) Sweat

c) Breast milk

d) All the above

d) All the above

The process by which the body breaks down or converts medications to active or inactive substances is called:

a) Absorption

b) Distribution

c) Metabolism

d) Elimination

c) Metabolism

SL or sublingual pertains to:

a) Over the tongue

b) Under the tongue

c) Between the gum and cheek

d) Swallow the whole tablet

b) Under the tongue

If a Pharmacy Technician places a call on hold, what is the appropriate time frame to check back with a caller?

a. 30 seconds

b. 1 minute

c. 1 - 2 minutes

d. 3 minutes

The 2005 Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act ensures:

a) Restricting the amount of PSE-containing products

b) Pharmacists & Pharmacy Techs facilitate sales of PSE

c) The maximum amt of PSE sold may not exceed 9g/30 days

d) All the above

d) All the above