Mizzou Microbiology 3200- exam 4

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1
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What type of staining do we use for myobacteria?

Acid-fast stain

2
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what disease does M. leprae cause?

Hansen's disease, leprosy

3
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what disease does MAC and M. avium complex cause?

Disseminated respiratory infections & HIV+

4
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what are the 5 mycobacteria cause TB?

M. tuberculosis, M. africanum, M. bovis, M. microti, M. caprae

5
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What disease does M. ulcerans cause?

Buruli ulcer

6
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what disease does M. Marinum cause?

Fishtank granuloma

7
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the mycomembrane is composed of what?

mycolic acids which form a waxy, hydrophobic coat

8
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what are the 3 main symptoms associated with TB?

fever, rapid weight loss, frequent night sweats

9
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when the bacteria goes into latent infection, it is contained in what?

primary granuloma

10
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During a TB skin test, what causes local swelling and inflammation

Stimulation of memory T cells

11
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does TB skin test determine between latent and active infection?

No it cannot, it can only detect exposure

12
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what two M. tb proteins are used in the Quantiferon-TB gold test?

ESAT-6 and CFP-10

13
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what happens during the quantiferon-TB gold test if the patient is infected?

their white blood cells will release interferon-gamme in response to contact with TB antigens

14
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what quantiferon-TB gold test determine between latent and active infection?

No

15
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what testing is required to actually determine between latent and active infection?

CXR, sputum culture, acid-fast staining,

Growth of lowenstein-jensen agar (Brown-granular appearance)

16
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What treatment is used for TB?

combination therapy: Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol for 2 months, then isoniazid and rifampicin alone for a further 4 months. //along with direct observed treatment, short-course

17
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what is direct observed treatment, short-course

observation by a healthcare worker to ensure patient completes treatment

18
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what does the drug rifampicin inhibit?

RNA synthesis

19
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what happens when a patient has HIV and TB?

treatment is complicated due to drug interactions with TB drugs and HIV drugs.

20
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what parts of the body does leprosy affect?

cooler parts (skin, upper respiratory and testes)

21
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leprosy can lead to what?

deformities and blindness

22
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what is damaged by leprosy disease?

nerve cells and neurons

23
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M. leprae replicates within what cells?

macrophage/dendritic cells and schwann cells

24
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what are the two forms of leprosy disease?

tuberculoid leprosy & lepromatous leprosy

25
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what characteristics are associated with tuberculoid leprosy?

Strong cell mediated immunity, macrophage killing, few bacilli in skin smears

26
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what characteristics are associated with lepromatous leprosy?

Weak cell mediated immunity, strong humoral immunity, many bacilli in skin smears

27
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what is the clinical presentation of leprosy?

Skin lesions: plaques and macules

Enlarged and tender nerves

Painless ulcers on feet

Loss of eyebrows/eyelashes (nerves to hair follicles are damaged and cannot communicate)

Muscle weakness, sensory deficits, loss of sweating

28
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what is the transmission route of buruli ulcer?

unknown

29
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is buruli ulcer fatal?

no

30
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buruli ulcer disease is mediated by what toxin?

mycolactone

31
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what forms do fungi exist as?

yeasts (budding single cells ) and molds (filamentous or hyphal form)

32
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what fungi is a budding yeast?

cryptococcus neoformans

33
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what fungi is a dimorphic?

candida albicans, candida auris, histoplasma capsulatum

34
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cryptococcal disease is a hallmark infection of what diease?

HIV

35
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does cryptococcal disease have person-person tranmission?

no

36
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what disease is caused by cryptococcus neoformans?

cryptococcal disease

37
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is asymptomatic infection common in cryptoccocal disease?

yes

38
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cryptoccocal disease is a common cause of menigitis where?

africa

39
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what fungi only grows virulent strains at 37 degrees C?

cryptococcus neoformans

40
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lumbar puncture is essential for diagnosis of what pathogen?

cryptococcus neoformans

41
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what are the high risk activities associated with Histoplasmosis

construction, exploring caves, home renovation, tilling soil

42
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Thrush is caused by an excess of what fungi found in the GI tract?

Candida albicans

43
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what fungi is Histoplasmosis caused by?

Histoplasma capsulatum

44
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the calcified nodules on the lungs associated with Histoplasmosis is often confused with what other disease?

Millary TB

45
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severity of illness is directly related to what when it comes to protozoa?

infectious dose and the number of repeated exsposures

46
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Amebiasis is caused by what pathogen?

Entamoeba histolytica

47
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what is the clinical presentation of amebiasis?

Water diarrhea --> blood and mucoid

Coloscopy: ulcers

Pathology: flask shaped ulcerations

48
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what complications are associated with amebiasis

Peritonitis,

Appendicitis and cecitis,

Necrotizing colitis and toxic megacolon

49
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what occurs with amebic liver abscess?

amoebas resist killing by complement proteins enter the hepatic portal vein and colonize the livers

50
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what are the symptoms associated with amebic liver abscess

flank pain, fever (blood tests have aspartate and alanine aminotransferase levels are elevated which suggests liver damage)

51
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what is the reservoir for giardia lamblia

humans or beavers

52
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what is the clinical presentation associated with Giardiasis?

Diarrhea

Greasy stools that float

Gas bloating

Nausea

53
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what is the post infectious problems associated with giardiasis?

irritable bowel syndrome

54
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what is the diagnosis for Giardiasis: Giardia Iamblia

Stool for ova & parasites- but unreliable

Fecal antigen detection

55
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Balantidium coli is mainly associated with what animal

pigs

56
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what groups are at risk for infection of balantidium coli

occupational infection of farm workers and meat handlers

57
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what is required for diagnosis of balantidium coli

trophozoites in stool

58
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what are the intestinal coccidia and their sizes?

cryptosporidium hominis (tiny), cyclospora cayetanensis (mid-size), cystoisospora belli (large and ovoid)

59
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what is the clinical presentation of crypto

Causes voluminous, watery diarrhea, without RBCS and WBCS

Causes self-limited disease in immunocompetent hosts

Causes chronic disease and biliary tract disease in immunocompromised hosts (AIDS)

60
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what is the diagnosis associated with crypto

ova and parasites (acid fast stain of concentrated stool)

61
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malaria is caused by which species of plasmodium

P. falciparum (most virulent)

62
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what are the total 5 species of plasmodium?

P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae, P. knowlesi

63
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what is the clinical presentation of malaria

Non-specific symptoms Headaches Malaise Cough Fever

Classic paroxysms : high fever, shaking and chills

64
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the classis paroxysms associated with malaria repeat every 48 hours due to what?

the parasite-life cycle of P. falciparum

65
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what is the severe disease associated with malaria

Jaundice --> liver failure

Shock --> potential multiple organ dysfunction/failure

Respiratory failure

Abnormal behavior, seizures, coma, neurologic problems --> cerebral malaria (brain is starved of oxygen)

66
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infection of plasmodium falciparum is severe due to what?

Infects RBCS of all ages, shortest incubation period, most rapid erythrocytic cycle (24-48)

67
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cerebral malaria occurs because of what?

RBCS stick together due to basophilic stippling and it causes blockages in capillaries

68
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what is the reservoir associated with malaria infection?

humans

69
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what is the definitive host associated with malaria and why?

anophele mosquitos// plasmodium reproduces sexually only in the mosquito

70
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why are humans considered the intermediate host when it comes to malaria?

we infect the mosquitos

71
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how we diagnose malaria

micrscopy (gold standard, uses thick and thin blood smears stained with glemsa stain)

72
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what is the difference between thick and thin smears associated with diagnosing malaria?

thick smears --> presence of parasites

thin smears--> species-level identification

73
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what can occur with the blood smears in endemic areas of malaria?

patients may have positive smear and not have clinical malaria

74
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which species of babesia causes the most human infections?

B. microti

75
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babesia species look like what other species?

plasmodium spp.

76
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what is the reservoir associated with Babesia spp.

Deer, cattle and rodents

77
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what is the vector associated with babesia spp.

ixodes scapularis (Deer ticks)

78
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what groups are at risk of babesiosis

lack of spleen, old age, immunocompromised

79
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what are the symptoms associated with babesiosis?

high fever, shaking, chills, malaise, headache, fatigue, dark colored urine (due to hemolytic anemia)

80
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The disease associated with leishmania species is transmitted by what animal?

sand fly

81
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what are the reservoirs associated with leishmania

humans (old world only), rodents, canines, equines, monkeys, sloths

82
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what disease is associated with volcano sign lesions?

cutaneous leishmaniasis

83
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Visceral Leishmaniasis is also known as what?

kala-azar, black fever, and dum dum

84
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visceral Leishmaniasis is caused by what?

leishmania donovani

85
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(T/F) most people infected with visceral Leishmaniasis are asymptomatic

True

86
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what is the pentad of symptoms associated with visceral Leishmaniasis

fever, cachexia, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia, hypergamma-globuliemia

87
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what diseases are caused by Clostridium perfringens

food poisoning and gas gangrene

88
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what diseases are caused by Clostridium difficile (now clostridicdes)

antibiotic induced diarrhea, pseudo-membranous colitis

89
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what diseases are caused by Clostridium botulinum

food-borne botulism, infant botulism, wound botulism

90
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what disease is caused by clostridium tetani

tetanus (lockjaw)

91
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what are the general features of clostridia?

gram-positive rod, some are motile, spore formers, many species secrete toxins, and obligate anaerobes

92
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symptoms associated with clostridium perfrigens infection usually starts how long after consumption

8-22 hours and usually lasts around 24

93
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what is the important toxin associated with clostridium perfrigens?

alpha toxin

94
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clostridium perfrigens results from what?

temperature abuse of foodenter

95
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clostridium perfrigens bacteria produce what?

enterotoxins

96
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why is gas gangrene usually characterized by a foul-smell?

there are gaseous metabolic products produced that smell foul from the

97
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what causes the swelling and tissue death associated with gas gangrene?

a-toxin and PFO

98
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how do we diagnosis gas gangrene associated with C. perfrigens?

lesions, presence of large G+ bacilli, and nagler toxin

99
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what can result within one week of a gas gangrene infection

shock, kidney failure, and death

100
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the nagler test determines the presence of what?

alpha toxin