ucla phleb session 1

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Last updated 3:57 AM on 1/28/26
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76 Terms

1
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To renew a state phlebotomy license, — continuing educations (CEs) must be completed every — years.

6 CEs, 2 years

2
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Licensed phlebotomy technician (LPT) is allowed to perform…

Skin puncture

3
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Certified phlebotomy technician I (CPT-I) is allowed to perform…

Skin puncture and venipuncture

4
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Certified phlebotomy technician II (CPT-II) is allowed to perform…

Skin puncture, venipuncture, and arterial puncture

5
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What kind of procedure involves blood collection via needle insertion into the vein?

Venipuncture

6
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What kind of procedure involves blood collection via lancet insertion into the skin?

Capillary puncture

7
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When one state recognizes the licensure granted by another state that is called?

Reciprocity

8
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When did phlebotomy begin and for what reason?

Began in the stone age to remove evil spirits

9
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Who discovered circulation in the 17th century?

William Harvey

10
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On the barber-surgeon pole, what does the pole symbolize?

Rod squeezed by patient to promote bleeding

11
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On the barber-surgeon pole, what does the red stripe symbolize?

Blood

12
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On the barber-surgeon pole, what does the white stripe symbolize?

Bandages

13
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The clinical lab scientist/medical lab scientist (CLS/MLS) requires how many years of education?

4 years of program and 1 year of internship

14
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The medical lab technician (MLT) requires how many years of education?

2 years of program

15
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What is the largest and most automated clincal laboratory department?

Chemistry

16
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Which department detects and measures chemical substances in the body?

Chemistry

17
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What tests does the chemistry department perform?

Electrolytes (lytes), lipid profile, and glucose

18
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Which department discovers, identifies, and monitors defects in blood and blood forming tissues?

Hematology

19
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What tests does the hematology department perform?

CBC; complete blood count and ESR; erythrocite sedimentation rate

20
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Which department discovers, identifies, and monitors defects in blood clotting mechanisms?

Coagulation

21
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What tests does the coagulation department perform?

PT; prothrombin time and APTT; activated partial thromboplastin time

22
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Which department studies serum and the immune system?

Serology/Immunology

23
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What tests does the serology/immunology department perform?

HIV, RPR; rapid plasma reagin, RF; rheumatoid factor

24
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What test identifies antigen-antibody response of the body to infections?

Serology test

25
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What test tests for immune system response problems?

Immunology test

26
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What are the 3 components of urinanalysis?

Chemical, physical, microscopic

27
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What test does the urinanalysis department perform?

Clean catch specimen

28
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Which department analyzes for the presence of microorganisms?

Microbiology

29
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What test does the microbiology department perform?

C&S; culture and sensitivity

30
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What is the purpose of C&S tests?

Identify microorganisms and the antibiotic most effective for treatment

31
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Which department performs blood typing and antibody tests?

Blood bank

32
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True or false. It is crucial for the blood bank to make no mistakes.

True

33
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Which department evaluates tissue samples for pathology?

Histology

34
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Which department identifies, counts, and studies cells to diagnose malignant and premalignant conditions?

Cytology

35
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Which regulatory organization establishes the gold standard and is made of volunteer representatives?

CLSI; Clincal Laboratory Standards Institute

36
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Which regulatory organization provides laboratory accreditation and proficiency testing?

CAP; College of American Pathologists

37
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Which regulatory organization is an accrediting agency and performs inspections every 2 years?

TJC; The Joint Commission

38
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Which regulatory organizations work together?

CAP and TJC

39
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What states specific guidelines for quality control and personnel qualifications to regulate all labs?

CLIA; Clincal Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988

40
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What is 8AM, 1PM, 5:30PM in military time?

0800, 1300, 1730

41
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What 3 things should never be done for specimen labeling?

Never label container prior to obtaining speciemen.

Never leave the room/bedside before labeling the container.

Never collect specimen from a patient without a ID band.

42
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What is the primary goal of the infection control program?

To reduce the risk of endemic and epidemic infections in patients, peronnel, and visitors

43
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What does pathogen mean?

Disease causing

44
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What color is a negative gram stain signifying a thin cell wall?

Pink

45
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What color is a positive gram stain signifying a thick cell wall?

Purple

46
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What specimen and time of day is ideal to test for mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Sputum collected early in the morning

47
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Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is collected where?

Spinal cord

48
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Synovial fluid is collected where?

Cavities of joints such as the knees, hips, shoulders, and fingers

49
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Pleural fluid is collected where?

Lungs

50
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Pericardial fluid is collected where?

Heart

51
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What is an infection acquired after a person has entered a hospital, clinic, nursing home or rehab facility called?

Nosocomial infection or HAI; healthcare associated infection

52
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What is the most common nosocomial infection?

Catheter associated UTI (CAUTI)

53
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What is engineering control?

Controls that isolate or remove the bloodborne pathogen hazard

54
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What is the donning process?

Wash hands → Gown → Mask → Goggles → Gloves

55
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What is the doffing process?

Gloves → Gown → Goggles → Mask → Wash hands

56
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How often must gloves be changed?

After every patient or every 30 minutes of non-patient contact

57
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What ratio solution is used to disinfect surfaces?

1:10 sodium hypochlorite/bleach and water

58
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What 3 characteristics must the container have to be qualified as a sharp container?

Biohazard symbol, leak proof, and puncture resistant

59
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What happens when there is a missing link in the chain of infection?

Infection does not occur

60
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The elderly, newborn, acute/chronically ill, immune suppressed, and unvaccinated are considered a part of what group?

Susceptible hosts

61
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Contact isolation requires what kind of protective material?

Gloves and gown

62
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Droplet isolation requires what kind of protective material?

Gloves, gown, and surgical mask

63
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A droplet >5 micrometers is droplet or airborne?

Droplet

64
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A droplet that is <5 micrometers is droplet or airborne?

Airborne

65
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66
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Patients with intestinal infections

67
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Enteric isolation requires what kind of protective material?

Gloves and gown

68
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69
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Protective or reverse/neutropenic isolation requires what kind of protective material?

Sterile gloves

70
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Which organization mandates and enforces safe working conditions?

OSHA

71
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True or false. You can use your hands to remove broken glass.

False. Use a dust pan

72
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When should the sharps container be replaced?

When it is 2/3 full

73
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True or false. PPE is only used in the lab or patient’s room.

True

74
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What is the role of NIOSH?

Conducts research and makes recommendations for the prevention of work-related injury and illness

75
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OSHA’s bloodborne pathogen standards are designed for what purpose?

To reduce the risk of medical employees’ exposure to infectious diseases

76
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What vaccination is given to medical employees at no cost provided by OSHA’s bloodborne pathogen standards?

Hepatitis B vaccine

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