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_______ is used in fungal nail and hair microscopic prep to dissolve tissue debris
KOH
ergosterol is in the cell membrane of ______
a. fungi
b. humans
a.
what is the MOA of itraconazole?
inhibits ergosterol synthesis
fungi is a _____ species, meaning it exists as mold/hyphae or yeast, depending on environmental conditions
dimorphic
what is typically the parasitic form of fungi?
a. yeast
b. mold
a.
what is typically the environmental form of fungi?
a. yeast
b. mold
b.
mold reproduces _______ via spores
a. asexually
b. sexually
c. either
c.
yeast reproduces _______ by budding
a. asexually
b. sexually
c. either
a.
yeast form of fungi occurs in ______ at 37ºC
a. body or lab
b. environment
a.
hyphal/mold form of fungi occurs in _______ at 25ºC
a. body or lab
b. environment
b.
how can you remember when fungi is going to be mold vs yeast?
mold in the cold, yeast in the heat
sporotrichosis is caused by the ________ form of sporothrix schenckii
yeast form
the cell wall of fungi is made of _________
chitin
protoplasm is interrupted by cross walls
a. septate hyphae
b. aseptate hyphae
a.
protoplasm is continuous and multinucleated
a. septate hyphae
b. aseptate hyphae
b.
what are the primary barriers to fungal infection?
primary barriers: intact skin and mucosal surfaces
so if skin is broken, it facilitates fungal infection
______ are sexual reproductive structures of fungi
a. spores
b. conidia
a.
_____ are asexual reproductive structures of fungi
a. spores
b. conidia
b.
onchomycosis is an infection of toenails that requires ________ treatment
systemic
agent: Lamisil
___________ cause mycetomas, inoculated through the skin due to soil molds
madurella mycetomatis
sporothrix schenckii is caused by _______
rose bush scratch
what is the treatment for sporothrix schenckii?
itraconazole — ergosterol synthesis blocker
_______ infection can occur following antibiotic treatment
candida albicans
what is an example of normal flora competing with fungi?
candida albicans proliferating after use of antibiotics or changes in nutrition — eliminates bacteria
list the flagellates we talked about
giardia lamblia (intestinalis)
trypanosoma cruzi
trypanosoma brucei
leishmania
trichomonas vaginalis
giardia lamblia (intestinalis) causes _______
steatorrhea
cyst
T/F giardia lamblia (intestinalis) lacks mitochondria
TRUE
what flagellate causes Romaña sign?
trypanosoma cruzi
trypanosoma cruzi is transmitted by ________
kissing, reduviid bug
trypanosoma cruzi is also known as _______
American trypanosomiasis
acute Chagas’ disease
what is the mode of transmission of trypanosoma brucei?
tsetse fly
_________ causes sleeping sickness
trypanosoma brucei
leishmania causes _______ at site of bite
boils
skin infection
what is another name for visceral leishmania?
Kala-azar
what is the vector for leishmania?
sandfly
________ is an STD, flagellate with NO cyst stage
trichomonas vaginalis
entamoeba histolytica is _______ ingested and causes _______
RBC ingested
causes amebic dysentery
what is the mode of transmission of entamoeba histolytica?
what secondary infection can happen?
mode of transmission: ingesting the cyst with contaminated veggies or water
secondary infection: shigella dysenteriae
entamoeba coli is _________
a. pathogenic
b. nonpathogenic
b.
do NOT contain RBCs
__________ is a brain eating ameba
naegleria fowleri
naegleria fowleri causes ________
primary amebic meningoencephalitis
list the symptoms of stage 1 primary amebic meningoencephalitis caused by naegleria fowleri
severe headache
fever
nausea
list the symptoms of stage 2 primary amebic meningoencephalitis caused by naegleria fowleri
vomiting
stiff neck
seizures
AMS
hallucinations
coma
___________ can cause eye infection (keratitis) associated with contact lenses
acanthamoeba
schistosoma haematobium egg has a _______
a. terminal spine
b. tiny (inconspicuous) lateral spine
c. large lateral spine
a.
schistosoma japonicum egg has a _______
a. terminal spine
b. tiny (inconspicuous) lateral spine
c. large lateral spine
b.
schistosoma mansoni egg has a _______
a. terminal spine
b. tiny (inconspicuous) lateral spine
c. large lateral spine
c.
T/F schistosomiasis requires snails (host) to complete its life cycle
TRUE
_________ is also known as Pharaoh’s curse
schistosoma haematobium
eggs are found in the urine for which blood fluke?
a. schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistosoma mansoni
a.
eggs are found in the feces for which blood fluke?
a. schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistosoma mansoni
b.
c.
schistosomiasis produce _______ larvae, which hatches from egg, survives in water, and infects snail
miracidium
schistosomiasis produce ________ larvae, which are free swimming, leaves snail, and penetrates human skin, infective stage
cercaria
where does plasmodium reproduce asexually in humans?
RBCs
what is the mode of transmission of plasmodium?
female Anopheles mosquito
-sexual reproduction
plasmodium ________ is the most deadly malaria
falciparum
if p. falciparum is non-resistant, what is used to treat it?
chloroquine
characteristics of p. falciparum
gametocyte
banana/crescent-shaped
p. falciparum can cause ________
CNS infection and black water fever
what kind of plasmodiums are persistent and stay in hypnozoite stage in liver for 5 years?
p. vivax
p. ovale
what is the mode of transmission of babesia microti?
where does it live?
same area as: ____ ?
MoT: hard bodied tick
lives in RBC
same area as lyme
what effect does toxoplasma gondii have in the first trimester?
spontaneous abortion
birth defects
what is the major source of toxoplasma gondii human infection?
opportunistic infection in ______ pts?
major source: cat feces
opportunistic: AIDS pts
T/F protozoa are eukaryotes with a cell wall
FALSE
lack a cell wall
how do you diagnose pinworm (enterobius vermicularis)?
scotch tape technique
how do you self-reinfect pinworm (enterobius vermicularis)?
what is a major symptom?
touch your butt, eggs from perianal area get on your fingers, then you touch your mouth
sx: pruritus (itching)
what causes elephantiasis (filariasis)?
mode of transmission?
cause: wuchereria bancrofti
MoT: mosquito
if you ingest third stage larva with the fresh-water copepod crustacean: cyclops (aka water flea), what parasite can you get?
dracunculus medinensis (Guinea worm)
with dracunculus medinensis, worm protrudes _______
at contact with water
how do you get ascaris lumbricoides?
ingesting embryonated eggs contaminating leafy vegetables
T/F there is a lung stage with ascaris lumbricoides
TRUE
which can autoinfect (complete lifecycle within same host)?
a. hookworms
b. strongyloides
b.
which release eggs into stool?
a. hookworms
b. strongyloides
a.
what is the infective stage of onchocerca volvulus?
mode of transmission?
infective stage: 3rd stage larva
MoT: blackfly bite
what can cause river blindness? west africa
onchocerca volvulus
trichinella spiralis is a ______
mode of transmission?
nematode
MoT: undercooked pork
trichinella spiralis cause cysts in ______
brain
striated muscle
cardiac muscle
identify each as pig, cow, or fish tapeworm
taenia saginata
diphyllobothrium latum
taenia solium
taenia saginata: cow
diphyllobothrium latum: fish
taenia solium: pig
what is diagnostic of taenia solium?
proglottids in feces
what are the modes of transmission of taenia solium?
ingesting cysticercus in pork, undercooked
ingesting vegetables contaminated with eggs
where are proglottids found with taenia saginata?
underwear
feces
taenia saginata can grow up to _______
20 meters
mode of transmission for taenia saginata?
diphyllobothrium latum?
taenia saginata: cysticercus in undercooked beef
diphyllobothrium latum: undercooked fish/sushi
list the criteria of biological warfare (BWF)
unusual agent, virus or bacteria, for the geographical area
unusual multiple resistance to antibiotics
vector does NOT exist in the area
people in areas with filtered air NOT affected
features of bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
exotoxins: EF & LF
capsule
spore forming: infectious form
T/F brucellosis and tularemia require high doses
FALSE
low doses
brucellosis is a bacterial species that is transmitted by __________
erythritol aerosol
unpasteurized milk/dairy
brucellosis is mammalian associated
list what mammal each is associated with:
b. abortus
b. melitensis
b. suis
b. abortus: cattle
b. melitensis: goats/sheep
b. suis: pigs
what is the vector for tularemia?
characterized by _____?
vector: tick, rabbit
characteristics: splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, skin/mucous membrane ulceration, pneumonia
Q fever (coxiella burnetti) is a _______ infection that can come from _____
macrophage infection
milk products
list symptoms of acute Q fever (coxiella burnetti)
granuloma
hepatomegaly
splenomegaly
list symptoms of chronic disease: Q fever (coxiella burnetti)
endocarditis: damaged heart valve
_________ causes bubonic and pneumonic plague
yersinia pestis
which has no person to person spread?
a. bubonic
b. pneumonic
a.
how is yersinia pestis transmitted?
rat flea
-infected flea bites human
_________ causes rice water diarrhea and dehydration
vibrio cholerae (cholera)
vibrio cholerae activates ___________
adenylate cyclase
smallpox is a _____ virus
a. DNA
b. RNA
a.
how is smallpox spread?
aerosol
T/F smallpox is considered eradicated —> we don’t vaccinate for it —> majority of US population has NO IMMUNITY to it
TRUE