parasites and fungi - dr hussein

0.0(0)
studied byStudied by 8 people
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
Card Sorting

1/101

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Study Analytics
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced

No study sessions yet.

102 Terms

1
New cards

_______ is used in fungal nail and hair microscopic prep to dissolve tissue debris

KOH

2
New cards

ergosterol is in the cell membrane of ______

a. fungi

b. humans

a.

3
New cards

what is the MOA of itraconazole?

inhibits ergosterol synthesis

4
New cards

fungi is a _____ species, meaning it exists as mold/hyphae or yeast, depending on environmental conditions

dimorphic

5
New cards

what is typically the parasitic form of fungi?

a. yeast

b. mold

a.

6
New cards

what is typically the environmental form of fungi?

a. yeast

b. mold

b.

7
New cards

mold reproduces _______ via spores

a. asexually

b. sexually

c. either

c.

8
New cards

yeast reproduces _______ by budding

a. asexually

b. sexually

c. either

a.

9
New cards

yeast form of fungi occurs in ______ at 37ºC

a. body or lab

b. environment

a.

10
New cards

hyphal/mold form of fungi occurs in _______ at 25ºC

a. body or lab

b. environment

b.

11
New cards

how can you remember when fungi is going to be mold vs yeast?

mold in the cold, yeast in the heat

12
New cards

sporotrichosis is caused by the ________ form of sporothrix schenckii

yeast form

13
New cards

the cell wall of fungi is made of _________

chitin

14
New cards

protoplasm is interrupted by cross walls

a. septate hyphae

b. aseptate hyphae

a.

15
New cards

protoplasm is continuous and multinucleated

a. septate hyphae

b. aseptate hyphae

b.

16
New cards

what are the primary barriers to fungal infection?

primary barriers: intact skin and mucosal surfaces

so if skin is broken, it facilitates fungal infection

17
New cards

______ are sexual reproductive structures of fungi

a. spores

b. conidia

a.

18
New cards

_____ are asexual reproductive structures of fungi

a. spores

b. conidia

b.

19
New cards

onchomycosis is an infection of toenails that requires ________ treatment

systemic

agent: Lamisil

20
New cards

___________ cause mycetomas, inoculated through the skin due to soil molds

madurella mycetomatis

21
New cards

sporothrix schenckii is caused by _______

rose bush scratch

22
New cards

what is the treatment for sporothrix schenckii?

itraconazole — ergosterol synthesis blocker

23
New cards

_______ infection can occur following antibiotic treatment

candida albicans

24
New cards

what is an example of normal flora competing with fungi?

candida albicans proliferating after use of antibiotics or changes in nutrition — eliminates bacteria

25
New cards

list the flagellates we talked about

giardia lamblia (intestinalis)

trypanosoma cruzi

trypanosoma brucei

leishmania

trichomonas vaginalis

26
New cards

giardia lamblia (intestinalis) causes _______

steatorrhea

cyst

27
New cards

T/F giardia lamblia (intestinalis) lacks mitochondria

TRUE

28
New cards

what flagellate causes Romaña sign?

trypanosoma cruzi

29
New cards

trypanosoma cruzi is transmitted by ________

kissing, reduviid bug

30
New cards

trypanosoma cruzi is also known as _______

American trypanosomiasis

acute Chagas’ disease

31
New cards

what is the mode of transmission of trypanosoma brucei?

tsetse fly

32
New cards

_________ causes sleeping sickness

trypanosoma brucei

33
New cards

leishmania causes _______ at site of bite

boils

skin infection

34
New cards

what is another name for visceral leishmania?

Kala-azar

35
New cards

what is the vector for leishmania?

sandfly

36
New cards

________ is an STD, flagellate with NO cyst stage

trichomonas vaginalis

37
New cards

entamoeba histolytica is _______ ingested and causes _______

RBC ingested

causes amebic dysentery

38
New cards

what is the mode of transmission of entamoeba histolytica?

what secondary infection can happen?

mode of transmission: ingesting the cyst with contaminated veggies or water

secondary infection: shigella dysenteriae

39
New cards

entamoeba coli is _________

a. pathogenic

b. nonpathogenic

b.

do NOT contain RBCs

40
New cards

__________ is a brain eating ameba

naegleria fowleri

41
New cards

naegleria fowleri causes ________

primary amebic meningoencephalitis

42
New cards

list the symptoms of stage 1 primary amebic meningoencephalitis caused by naegleria fowleri

severe headache

fever

nausea

43
New cards

list the symptoms of stage 2 primary amebic meningoencephalitis caused by naegleria fowleri

vomiting

stiff neck

seizures

AMS

hallucinations

coma

44
New cards

___________ can cause eye infection (keratitis) associated with contact lenses

acanthamoeba

45
New cards

schistosoma haematobium egg has a _______

a. terminal spine

b. tiny (inconspicuous) lateral spine

c. large lateral spine

a.

46
New cards

schistosoma japonicum egg has a _______

a. terminal spine

b. tiny (inconspicuous) lateral spine

c. large lateral spine

b.

47
New cards

schistosoma mansoni egg has a _______

a. terminal spine

b. tiny (inconspicuous) lateral spine

c. large lateral spine

c.

48
New cards

T/F schistosomiasis requires snails (host) to complete its life cycle

TRUE

49
New cards

_________ is also known as Pharaoh’s curse

schistosoma haematobium

50
New cards

eggs are found in the urine for which blood fluke?

a. schistosoma haematobium

b. schistosoma japonicum

c. schistosoma mansoni

a.

51
New cards

eggs are found in the feces for which blood fluke?

a. schistosoma haematobium

b. schistosoma japonicum

c. schistosoma mansoni

b.

c.

52
New cards

schistosomiasis produce _______ larvae, which hatches from egg, survives in water, and infects snail

miracidium

53
New cards

schistosomiasis produce ________ larvae, which are free swimming, leaves snail, and penetrates human skin, infective stage

cercaria

54
New cards

where does plasmodium reproduce asexually in humans?

RBCs

55
New cards

what is the mode of transmission of plasmodium?

female Anopheles mosquito

-sexual reproduction

56
New cards

plasmodium ________ is the most deadly malaria

falciparum

57
New cards

if p. falciparum is non-resistant, what is used to treat it?

chloroquine

58
New cards

characteristics of p. falciparum

gametocyte

banana/crescent-shaped

59
New cards

p. falciparum can cause ________

CNS infection and black water fever

60
New cards

what kind of plasmodiums are persistent and stay in hypnozoite stage in liver for 5 years?

p. vivax

p. ovale

61
New cards

what is the mode of transmission of babesia microti?

where does it live?

same area as: ____ ?

MoT: hard bodied tick

lives in RBC

same area as lyme

62
New cards

what effect does toxoplasma gondii have in the first trimester?

spontaneous abortion

birth defects

63
New cards

what is the major source of toxoplasma gondii human infection?

opportunistic infection in ______ pts?

major source: cat feces

opportunistic: AIDS pts

64
New cards

T/F protozoa are eukaryotes with a cell wall

FALSE

lack a cell wall

65
New cards

how do you diagnose pinworm (enterobius vermicularis)?

scotch tape technique

66
New cards

how do you self-reinfect pinworm (enterobius vermicularis)?

what is a major symptom?

touch your butt, eggs from perianal area get on your fingers, then you touch your mouth

sx: pruritus (itching)

67
New cards

what causes elephantiasis (filariasis)?

mode of transmission?

cause: wuchereria bancrofti

MoT: mosquito

68
New cards

if you ingest third stage larva with the fresh-water copepod crustacean: cyclops (aka water flea), what parasite can you get?

dracunculus medinensis (Guinea worm)

69
New cards

with dracunculus medinensis, worm protrudes _______

at contact with water

70
New cards

how do you get ascaris lumbricoides?

ingesting embryonated eggs contaminating leafy vegetables

71
New cards

T/F there is a lung stage with ascaris lumbricoides

TRUE

72
New cards

which can autoinfect (complete lifecycle within same host)?

a. hookworms

b. strongyloides

b.

73
New cards

which release eggs into stool?

a. hookworms

b. strongyloides

a.

74
New cards

what is the infective stage of onchocerca volvulus?

mode of transmission?

infective stage: 3rd stage larva

MoT: blackfly bite

75
New cards

what can cause river blindness? west africa

onchocerca volvulus

76
New cards

trichinella spiralis is a ______

mode of transmission?

nematode

MoT: undercooked pork

77
New cards

trichinella spiralis cause cysts in ______

brain

striated muscle

cardiac muscle

78
New cards

identify each as pig, cow, or fish tapeworm

taenia saginata

diphyllobothrium latum

taenia solium

taenia saginata: cow

diphyllobothrium latum: fish

taenia solium: pig

79
New cards

what is diagnostic of taenia solium?

proglottids in feces

80
New cards

what are the modes of transmission of taenia solium?

ingesting cysticercus in pork, undercooked

ingesting vegetables contaminated with eggs

81
New cards

where are proglottids found with taenia saginata?

underwear

feces

82
New cards

taenia saginata can grow up to _______

20 meters

83
New cards

mode of transmission for taenia saginata?

diphyllobothrium latum?

taenia saginata: cysticercus in undercooked beef

diphyllobothrium latum: undercooked fish/sushi

84
New cards

list the criteria of biological warfare (BWF)

unusual agent, virus or bacteria, for the geographical area

unusual multiple resistance to antibiotics

vector does NOT exist in the area

people in areas with filtered air NOT affected

85
New cards

features of bacillus anthracis (anthrax)

exotoxins: EF & LF

capsule

spore forming: infectious form

86
New cards

T/F brucellosis and tularemia require high doses

FALSE

low doses

87
New cards

brucellosis is a bacterial species that is transmitted by __________

erythritol aerosol

unpasteurized milk/dairy

88
New cards

brucellosis is mammalian associated

list what mammal each is associated with:

b. abortus

b. melitensis

b. suis

b. abortus: cattle

b. melitensis: goats/sheep

b. suis: pigs

89
New cards

what is the vector for tularemia?

characterized by _____?

vector: tick, rabbit

characteristics: splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, skin/mucous membrane ulceration, pneumonia

90
New cards

Q fever (coxiella burnetti) is a _______ infection that can come from _____

macrophage infection

milk products

91
New cards

list symptoms of acute Q fever (coxiella burnetti)

granuloma

hepatomegaly

splenomegaly

92
New cards

list symptoms of chronic disease: Q fever (coxiella burnetti)

endocarditis: damaged heart valve

93
New cards

_________ causes bubonic and pneumonic plague

yersinia pestis

94
New cards

which has no person to person spread?

a. bubonic

b. pneumonic

a.

95
New cards

how is yersinia pestis transmitted?

rat flea

-infected flea bites human

96
New cards

_________ causes rice water diarrhea and dehydration

vibrio cholerae (cholera)

97
New cards

vibrio cholerae activates ___________

adenylate cyclase

98
New cards

smallpox is a _____ virus

a. DNA

b. RNA

a.

99
New cards

how is smallpox spread?

aerosol

100
New cards

T/F smallpox is considered eradicated —> we don’t vaccinate for it —> majority of US population has NO IMMUNITY to it

TRUE