FAA Airman Knowledge Test

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130 Terms

1
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Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

Precipitation beginning to fall

2
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Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?

An increase in ambient temperature

3
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During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?

Both wings are stalled

4
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To maintain BasicMed privileges, you must complete a BasicMed medical education course within the preceding:

24 calendar months

5
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Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will

Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage

6
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The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is

4 nautical miles

7
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While operating under BasicMed, the pilot in command must have visitecare physician within the preceding:d their primary

48 calendar months

8
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To fly in formation:

Each PIC must have conferred with the other pilots as to what they would do in flight

9
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What action, if any is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?

File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested

10
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With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon

11
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One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is

Visible moisture

12
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Most midair collision accidents occur during

Clear days

13
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Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate

Over a densely populated area or in a congested airway

14
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What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds

15
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If your GPS receiver is equipped with WAAS - Wide Area Augmentation System - your position accuracy is:

Less than three meters

16
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Static pressure, also known as ambient pressure, is:

Always present whether an aircraft is moving or at rest

17
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How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?

The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon landing

18
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Wind direction in a METAR is in

Degrees true

19
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What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?

Actual lapse rate

20
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Which instrument is affected if the pitot tube is blocked?

Airspeed indicator

21
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Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by

Blue omnidirectional lights

22
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Which instruments will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?

Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed

23
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A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the

Primary airport's control tower

24
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How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?

The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM

25
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With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?

When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more

26
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If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be

Steady red

27
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The layers of the atmosphere, beginning at the earth's surface, are:

Troposphere, stratosphere, and mesosphere

28
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FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?

70

29
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In order to check your progress when using dead reckoning with no radio instrumentation, make corrections by:

Using pilotage and keep track of your checkpoints

30
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An example of a "type" of aircraft would be:

Cessna 172, F-16, DC-7

31
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If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated

With passengers aboard

32
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SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?

All aircraft

33
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Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that

The ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more

34
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Where is BasicMed valid?

United States, Mexico, and the Bahamas

35
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Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?

Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed

36
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What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?

Identify themselves as pilots

37
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Moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected to

Produce stratus type clouds

38
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In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate

Correctly when on a north or south heading

39
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How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator?

By the relationship of the miniature airplane to the deflected horizon bar

40
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Which aircraft has the right-of-way? (Airship, Aircraft towing other aircraft, Gyroplane)

Aircraft towing other aircraft

41
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What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?

True direction and knots

42
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The AIM specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating

In conditions of reduced visibility

43
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A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

3402.5 hours

44
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When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft's

Ground track

45
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Each recreational or private pilot is required to have

A biennial flight review

46
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How are Significant Weather Prognostic Charts best used by a pilot?

For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence)

47
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Except when necessary for takeoff or landing an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?

500 feet

48
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A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?

Class D

49
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At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level?

18,000 feet MSL

50
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The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a

Light, quartering wind

51
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Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office?

An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident

52
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You can expect dangerous turbulence in mountain waves and:

Below rotor clouds

53
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What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

3 miles

54
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What causes an airplane to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?

The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced

55
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Parasite drag increases when airspeed is:

Increased

56
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In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?

Stalled

57
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No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when

Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement

58
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When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?

The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation

59
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Clouds are divided into four families according to their

Height range

60
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The definition of nighttime is

The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning or morning civil twilight

61
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During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is

3 miles

62
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Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

Flight control system malfunction or failure

63
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What information is included in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET?

Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hair 3/4 inch or greater in diameter

64
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If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?

Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower

65
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In which class of airspace is aerobatic flight prohibited?

Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL

66
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Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than

2,000 feet AGL

67
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What information is contained in the Notices to Airman Publication (NTAP)?

Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs

68
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To determine the freezing level and areas of probably icing aloft, the pilot should refer to the

Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories

69
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If you don't maintain a constant glide speed in attempting to land in an emergency:

It is difficult to judge your gliding distance and landing spot

70
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When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

200 knots

71
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Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?

Sunset to sunrise

72
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Applying carburetor heat will

Enrich the fuel/air mixture

73
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No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the

Ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles

74
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When an aircraft is flying at a high AOA, the downward moving blade of the propeller has a higher resultant velocity, creating more lift than the upward moving blade causing:

The airplane's nose to pull to the left

75
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After takeoff you encounter a temperature inversion. You should expect:

Wind shear

76
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When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

When it will compromise safety

77
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Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185 degrees?

4,500 feet

78
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What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?

High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions

79
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What preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight

80
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Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?

In the current, FAA-approved flight manual approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof

81
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The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately

080 and 260 degrees magnetic

82
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Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?

An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft

83
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Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as

safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft

84
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How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude

85
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A pilot who allows himself to get behind the aircraft, can cause:

A loss of situational awareness

86
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What is a characteristic of stable air?

Stratiform clouds

87
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Aviation Routine Weather reports (METARs) contain:

wind, visibility, precipitation, cloud coverage, temperature, and altimeter setting

88
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One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is

a change in temperature

89
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Uncontrolled airspace is Class G airspace. To operate in Class G airspace, the night visibility requirement for flight at 3,000 feet AGL, but below 10,000 feet MSL, is:

3 miles

90
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When using a PAPI/VASI, red over white means

aircraft is on the glide slope

91
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To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the

fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps

92
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A chair-type parachute must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

180 days

93
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Risk management relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?

Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgement

94
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Why is it a good idea to visually inspect to make sure that the crankcase breather lines are free of ice?

Ice may have formed as a result of the crankcase vapors freezing after the engine has been turned off

95
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Altitude setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

true altitude at field elevation

96
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Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?

Flashing green

97
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Wind shear can be defined as:

A change in wind direction or wind speed

98
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What does the outbound destination sign signify?

Identifies direction to take-off runways

99
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Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate

location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation

100
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What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

Continuous updraft