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multiple sclerosis
What does MS stand for?
MS
chronic, progressive autoimmune disease in which the patient's immune system attacks the myelin sheath
blurred vision, fatigue, numbness
What are 3 early symptoms of MS?
cognitive function deterioration,
gait instability,
incontinence,
muscle spasms,
pain
What are 5 issues that can make life very challenging that develop as MS worsens?
MRI
What is a test that can be used to diagnose MS?
disease progression prevention
What is a primary goal of MS therapy?
true
True or False: What is lost in neuronal function cannot be regained in a patient with MS.
glatiramer acetate,
interferon beta formulations
What 2 drug classes have been the mainstay of treatment for patients with relapsing forms of MS?
Copaxone
What is the brand name for glatiramer acetate?
Plegridy
What is a brand name for pegylated interferon beta?
14 days
Pegylated interferon beta allows for more convenient subcutaneous dosing every ________.
albumin
Some interferon beta formulations used in MS contain ________.
SC
What route of administration is used for glatiramer acetate for MS?
3 times/week,
QD
What are 2 dosing options for glatiramer acetate for MS?
chest pain
What is a warning associated with glatiramer acetate?
diaphoresis, dyspnea, flushing, injection site reactions
What are 4 side effects associated with glatiramer acetate?
glatiramer acetate
What is the preferred agent if MS treatment is necessary during pregnancy?
IM, SC
What 2 routes of administration are used for interferon beta-1a for MS?
weekly
How often is IM interferon beta-1a administered for MS?
3 times/week
How often is SC interferon beta-1a administered for MS?
every other day
How often is interferon beta-1b administered for MS?
Q14D
How often is peginterferon beta-1a administered for MS?
increased LFTs,
injection site necrosis,
psychiatric disorders,
thyroid dysfunction
What are 4 warnings associated with interferon beta formulations?
flu-like symptoms
What is a side effect of interferon beta formulations?
false
(let stand at room temperature prior to injection)
True or False: Interferon beta formulations can be administered immediately after removing from the refrigerator.
true
True or False: You should not expel the small air bubble in prefilled interferon beta syringes due to loss of dose.
sphingosine 1-phosphate receptor modulators
Fingolimod, ozanimod, ponesimod, and siponimod are examples of ________ used in MS.
MAO inhibitor use
What is a contraindication for ozanimod?
CYP2C93/3 genotype
What is a contraindication for siponimod?
slow HR
Sphingosine 1-phosphate receptor modulators should be used with caution with other drugs that can ________.
6 hours
Patients starting fingolimod must be monitored for at least ________ after the first dose due to risk of bradycardia or other bradyarrhythmias.
ECG
A baseline ________ is required for patients starting fingolimod.
infection, macular edema
What are 2 warnings associated with sphingosine 1-phosphate receptor modulators?
varicella zoster virus
Patients should be screened for ________ before starting a sphingosine 1-phosphate receptor modulator.
CBC,
eye exam,
LFTs
What are 3 monitoring parameters for sphingosine 1-phosphate receptor modulators?
sphingosine 1-phosphate receptor modulator
MS can become much worse when treatment with a(n) ________ is stopped.
nuclear factor-like 2 activators
Dimethyl fumarate, diroximel fumarate, and monomethyl fumarate are examples of ________ used in MS.
false
True or False: Nuclear factor-like 2 activators can be crushed, chewed, or sprinkled on food for easier administration.
pregnancy
What is a contraindication for teriflunomide?
pyrimidine synthesis inhibitor
Teriflunomide is an example of a(n) ________ used in MS.
CD20-directed monoclonal antibodies
Ofatumumab, ublituximab-xiiy, and ocrelizumab are examples of ________ used in MS.
alemtuzumab, natalizumab
What 2 monoclonal antibodies used in MS are only available through a REMS program?
Tysabri
What is the brand name for natalizumab?
progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
What is the boxed warning associated with natalizumab?
potassium channel blocker
Dalfampridine is an example of a(n) ________ used in MS.
anticholinergics; laxatives; muscle relaxants; analgesics
Drugs commonly used for symptom control in MS include ________ for incontinence, ________ for constipation, ________ for muscle spasms/spasticity, or ________ for muscle spasms/pain.
propranolol
What drug can help with tremors in MS?
Raynaud's
common condition that's triggered by exposure to cold and/or stress, leading to vasospasm in the extremities (most commonly in the fingers and/or toes); skin turns white then blue
vasodilation
Prevention and treatment of Raynaud's involve ________ to improve blood flow to the affected areas.
nifedipine
What drug is commonly used for prevention of Raynaud's episodes?
amphetamines, beta blockers, bleomycin, cisplatin, illicit drugs, pseudoephedrine
bib cap
What are 6 drugs/classes that cause or worsen Raynaud's?
celiac disease
immune response to eating gluten
barley, rye, wheat
In what 3 things is gluten found?
avoid gluten
What is the primary and most effective treatment for celiac disease?
abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea, weight loss
What are 4 common symptoms of celiac disease?
true
True or False: Pharmaceutical active ingredients are gluten-free, but some excipients may contain gluten.
starch;
corn, potato, tapioca, wheat
When going through a package insert to determine if an excipient contains gluten, look for the keyword "________," which will be either ________, ________, ________, or ________.
myasthenia gravis
autoimmune disease that attacks the connections between nerves and muscles, resulting in weakness in skeletal muscles
eyes/vision
Symptoms of myasthenia gravis often include changes to ________.
ptosis
drooping eyelid
ptosis
What is a common symptom of myasthenia gravis?
antiarrhythmics, antibiotics, antipsychotics, beta blockers, CCBs, local anesthetics, magnesium salts, muscle relaxants
What are 8 drug classes that can worsen or unmask myasthenia gravis?
aminoglycosides, quinolones
What 2 antibiotic classes most commonly worsen or unmask myasthenia gravis?
cholinesterase inhibitors; pyridostigmine
________, specifically ________, are the mainstay of treatment in myasthenia gravis.
cholinesterase inhibitor
drug class that blocks the breakdown of acetylcholine, which improves neuromuscular transmission and increases muscle strength
cholinergic effects
What is a warning associated with pyridostigmine?
diarrhea, excessive urination, lacrimation, salivation
What are 4 examples of cholinergic effects?
Sjogren's syndrome
autoimmune disease most often characterized by severe dry eyes and dry mouth
chronic oral infections,
corneal ulceration,
dental caries
What are 3 complications due to Sjogren's syndrome?
artificial teardrops
What is the primary treatment for dry eyes in Sjogren's syndrome?
Clear Eyes, Liquifilm, Refresh, Systane
What are 4 popular OTC artificial teardrops used in Sjogren's syndrome?
benzalkonium chloride
If the preservative ________ found in artificial teardrops is irritating, preservative-free formulations packaged in individual use containers are available.
cyclosporine
________ eye drops can be used for Sjogren's syndrome dry eye in patients who don't have satisfactory relief from other measures, including ductal occlusion.
Restasis
What is the brand name for cyclosporine emulsion eye drops?
infection
Patients using Restasis should be counseled to use it properly to avoid ________.
ocular burning
What is a side effect of Restasis?
unusual taste
What is a side effect of Xiidra (lifitegrast)?
antimicrobial mouthwash rinses,
sugar-free chewing gum w/ xylitol,
sugar-free lozenges
What are 3 non-drug treatments for Sjogren's syndrome dry mouth?
muscarinic agonists;
cevimeline, pilocarpine
If OTC treatments for Sjogren's syndrome dry mouth don't provide sufficient relief, prescription oral ________, such as ________ or ________, can be used.
narrow-angle glaucoma,
uncontrolled asthma
What are 2 contraindications for muscarinic agonists?
psoriasis
chronic, autoimmune disease that appears on the skin
plaque
The most common type of psoriasis is ________ psoriasis, which appears as raised, red patches covered with a silvery-white buildup of dead skin cells on any part of the body.
UV light
________ exposure causes activated T-cells in the skin to die.
UVB phototherapy
________, in controlled doses from an artificial source, can improve mild to moderate psoriasis symptoms.
anthralin, calcipotriene, coal tar, retinoids, salicylic acid, steroids, tapinarof
What are 7 topical drug options for the initial treatment of psoriasis?
topical calcineurin inhibitors
If initial topical therapies for psoriasis fail, ________ can be tried, and these are the preferred agents when applying to the face.
coal tar
What topical product used in psoriasis is also used for dandruff and dermatitis?
coal tar
What topical product used in psoriasis is messy, time-consuming, and can stain clothing and bedding?
retinoid
Acitretin is an example of a(n) ________ used in psoriasis.
retinoid
What drug class used in psoriasis is only used in severe cases when a patient is unresponsive to other therapies due to their numerous contraindications and side effects?
PDE-4 inhibitor
Apremilast is an example of a(n) ________ used in psoriasis.
weight loss
What is a warning associated with apremilast?
diarrhea
What is a common side effect of apremilast?
interleukin receptor antagonists
Brodalumab, guselkumab, ixekizumab, risankizumab, secukinumab, tildrakizumab, and ustekinumab are examples of ________ used in psoriasis.
SC
What route of administration is used for interleukin receptor antagonists for psoriasis?
serious infections
What is a warning associated with interleukin receptor antagonists?
TB
Patients should be screened for ________ before starting an interleukin receptor antagonist for psoriasis.
diarrhea
What is a common side effect of interleukin receptor antagonists?
selective tyrosine kinase 2 inhibitor
Deucravacitinib is an example of a(n) ________ used in psoriasis.
adrenal insufficiency, inflammatory conditions
Steroids are commonly used in what 2 conditions?