CARDIOPULM EXAM 2 QUIZZES

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40 Terms

1
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What kind of lung sounds are considered continuous and may be caused by airway narrowing?

A) Bronchial Sounds

B) Crackles

C) Wheezes

D) Pleural Rub

C) Wheezes

2
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What sound does pleural rub most closely resemble?

A) A musical tone

B) Leather or sandpaper rubbing

C) A whistle

D) A deep rumble

B) Leather or sandpaper rubbing

3
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Which airway clearance technique is particularly beneficial for patients with COPD in advanced stages?

A) Autogenic Drainage

B) Coughing

C) Active Cycle of Breathing

D) Pursed-Lip Breathing

D) Pursed-Lip Breathing

4
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What technique is most appropriate for a patient unable to generate an effective cough due to weakness?

A) Postural Drainage

B) Manually Assisted Cough

C) Diaphragmatic Breathing

D) Pursed-Lip Breathing

B) Manually Assisted Cough

5
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When performing the shaking (vibration) technique during postural drainage, when should it be applied?

A) During inspiration and expiration

B) Before postural drainage

C) During expiration only

D) After coughing

C) During expiration only

6
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In what position should a patient be placed for maximal access during lung auscultation?

A) Prone

B) Sitting upright

C) Supine

D) Side-lying

B) Sitting upright

7
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Which of the following patients may benefit most from postural drainage?

A) A patient with severe asthma

B) A patient with cystic fibrosis

C) A patient with a broken rib

D) A patient with a recent spinal injury

B) A patient with cystic fibrosis

8
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What is an advantage of using mechanical percussion devices compared to manual techniques?

A) Improves oxygen saturation

B) Increases treatment time

C) Enhances patient cooperation

D) Reduces caregiver fatigue

D) Reduces caregiver fatigue

9
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What is the main purpose of postural drainage in pulmonary care?

A) To mobilize and remove secretions from the lungs

B) To provide supplemental oxygen

C) To improve patient comfort

D) To assist with medication administration

A) To mobilize and remove secretions from the lungs

10
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What is the recommended duration for maintaining a position during postural drainage?

A) 5-10 minutes

B) 10-15 minutes

C) 20 minutes or longer

D) 1-2 minutes

A) 5-10 minutes

11
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Patients with hypertension may show this response during exercise:

A) Equal BP response compared to normals

B) Exaggerated BP response

C) Lower heart rate

D) Increased exercise capacity

B) Exaggerated BP response

12
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What is the most common symptom of Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)?

A) Night sweats

B) Dyspnea

C) Chest pain

D) Edema

B) Dyspnea

13
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What are symptoms of peripheral arterial disease (PAD)?

A) Intermittent claudication, rest pain, skin changes

B) Weight gain and insomnia

C) Severe headaches, palpitations, and nausea

D) Chronic cough and wheezing

A) Intermittent claudication, rest pain, skin changes

14
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Which of the following is NOT a modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease?

A) Family History

B) Physical Activity

C) Smoking

D) Health Diet

A) Family History

15
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What is a key characteristic of stable angina?

A) Only occurs during sleeping hours

B) Unpredictable onset, severe pain

C) Indicates a heart attack is imminent

D) Predictable onset with specific activities

D) Predictable onset with specific activities

16
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How is the Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) calculated?

A) ABI = 2 * (SBP (ankle) + SBP (arm))

B) ABI = DBP (ankle) / DBP (arm)

C) ABI = SBP (ankle) / SBP (arm)

D) ABI = SBP (arm) / SBP (ankle)

C) ABI = SBP (ankle) / SBP (arm)

17
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Virchow's Triad includes which of the following factors?

A) Hypercoagulability, Venous stasis, Endothelial injury

B) Hypertension, Hyperlipidemia, Obesity

C) Sedentary lifestyle, Age, Diabetes

D) Smoking, Alcohol, Physical inactivity

A) Hypercoagulability, Venous stasis, Endothelial injury

18
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What defines a myocardial infarction?

A) Persistent chest pain for more than an hour

B) Death of heart muscle tissue due to lack of oxygen

C) Transient ischemic attack

D) High blood pressure readings

B) Death of heart muscle tissue due to lack of oxygen

19
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Women often present with atypical symptoms during myocardial infarction, including which of the following?

A) Severe chest pain

B) Numbness in arms

C) Immediate loss of consciousness

D) Fatigue and indigestion

D) Fatigue and indigestion

20
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Which of the following is a common treatment for hypertension?

A) NSAIDs

B) Beta-blockers exclusively

C) Thiazide diuretics

D) Antidepressants

C) Thiazide diuretics

21
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What differentiates an ICD from a pacemaker?

A) A pacemaker prevents all arrhythmias

B) An ICD delivers shocks to restore normal rhythm

C) An ICD regulates only slow heart rates

D) A pacemaker is larger than an ICD

B) An ICD delivers shocks to restore normal rhythm

22
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What is the purpose of using an incentive spirometer post-thoracotomy?

A) To increase heart rate

B) To promote lung expansion and prevent pneumonia

C) To measure blood pressure

D) To facilitate chest tube drainage

B) To promote lung expansion and prevent pneumonia

23
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What does VATS stand for?

A) Variable Assisted Thoracoscopic Surgery

B) Ventricular Assisted Thoracotomy Surgery

C) Valvular Assisted Thoracic Surgery

D) Video-Assisted Thoracoscopic Surgery

D) Video-Assisted Thoracoscopic Surgery

24
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For which procedure might a chest tube be placed?

A) To aid in rehabilitation

B) To monitor heart rhythms

C) To evacuate air or fluid from the pleural space

D) To perform a biopsy

C) To evacuate air or fluid from the pleural space

25
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In which procedure are you most likely to observe a sternal retractor?

A) Percutaneous Coronary Intervention

B) Median Sternotomy

C) Video-Assisted Thoracoscopic Surgery

D) Anterolateral Thoracotomy

B) Median Sternotomy

26
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What defines Heart Failure with preserved Ejection Fraction (HFpEF)?

A) Heart completely stops pumping blood

B) Ejection fraction is slightly reduced but functional

C) Ejection fraction is 50% or greater but function is impaired

D) Ejection fraction is less than 40%

C) Ejection fraction is 50% or greater but function is impaired

27
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What is a common indication for performing a posterolateral thoracotomy?

A) Aortic Dissection

B) Myocardial Infarction

C) Heart Block

D) Hemothorax

D) Hemothorax

28
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What is the purpose of the Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI)?

A) To monitor heart rhythm

B) To evaluate lung function

C) To measure blood pressure

D) To assess the severity of peripheral artery disease (PAD)

D) To assess the severity of peripheral artery disease (PAD)

29
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Which peripheral artery disease (PAD) symptom is characterized by pain during activity that is relieved by rest?

A) Paresis

B) Trophic Changes

C) Rest Pain

D) Intermittent Claudication

D) Intermittent Claudication

30
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What complication is most commonly reported after a thoracotomy?

A) Pulmonary embolism

B) Hemothorax

C) Pain

D) Pneumothorax

C) Pain

31
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What is the most common reason for lung transplantation?

A) Asthma

B) Emphysema

C) Chronic bronchitis

D) Pneumonia

B) Emphysema

32
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What is the main purpose of the Zephyr Endobronchial Valve?

A) Enhance exercise capacity

B) Reduce lung hyperinflation

C) Replace damaged lung tissue

D) Provide nutritional support

B) Reduce lung hyperinflation

33
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How does a denervated heart respond differently to activities?

A) It has faster recovery times

B) It responds slower to physical activity than a normal heart.

C) It requires more oxygen at rest

D) It has a higher heart rate during rest

B) It responds slower to physical activity than a normal heart.

34
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What is a fundamental goal during the postoperative treatment phase for lung transplant patients?

A) Start aggressive weight training

B) Isolate from all visitors

C) Evaluate and improve pulmonary hygiene

D) Restrict oral intake

C) Evaluate and improve pulmonary hygiene

35
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What is one physiological change after heart transplantation?

A) The transplanted heart is denervated.

B) Normal heart rate variability

C) Increased nerve connectivity

D) Enhanced exercise response

A) The transplanted heart is denervated.

36
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When should patients have their medical evaluations for transplant candidacy reassessed?

A) Only if clinical symptoms worsen

B) Every 6 months

C) After 1 year

D) Every 3 months

B) Every 6 months

37
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During the acute postoperative phase, what is crucial for infection prevention?

A) Chamomile tea

B) Increased physical activity

C) Fluid restrictions

D) Strict hand hygiene

D) Strict hand hygiene

38
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What increases the chance of sympathetic nerves reconnecting to a donor heart?

A) Prior history of heart disease

B) Longer wait times for transplant

C) Receiving hearts from younger donors

D) Older age of recipient

C) Receiving hearts from younger donors

39
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What is a common exercise guideline for patients post-transplant?

A) 30-40 minutes of endurance exercise 3-5 times per week

B) 5 minutes of stretching only

C) 1 hour of yoga daily

D) 3 sets of 20 repetitions strength training

A) 30-40 minutes of endurance exercise 3-5 times per week

40
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What is a common reason for needing a heart transplant in patients under age 39?

A) Valvular heart disease

B) Nonischemic cardiomyopathy

C) Myocardial infarction

D) Hypertension

B) Nonischemic cardiomyopathy