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What is the difference between gram (+) bacteria and gram (-) bacteria?
Gram (+) bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan wall and a cell membrane. Gram (-) bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan wall, a cell membrane, and are covered with lipopolysaccharides and proteins.
What does a BLAST analysis do?
BLAST compares the DNA sequences input into it to its large database
What does the ELISA test do and what does it stand for?
ELISA- Enzyme-linked-immunosorbant-assay
This is a test that takes advantage of some of the body's natural immune responses to identify the presence of illness.
What is an antigen?
An antigen is really a type of protein found on the outside of every living cell (and virus!). Antigens are surface markers that cells use to identify each other. It's how your body knows that your body cells are truly yours, and they are how your body identifies cells and viruses that aren't yours.
What is an antibody?
The job of antibodies is to attach to foreign antigens. By attaching, those foreign antigens are neutralized. That attachment also signals other types of leukocytes (T lymphocytes) to come in and destroy whatever the antibody is attached to. So, antibodies attach to antigens. That is the principle behind an ELISA.
What are the symptoms of meningitis?
Fever; stiff neck; severe headache; vomiting or nausea with headache; confusion or difficulty concentrating; sensitivity to light; seizures; fatigue/difficulty waking up; loss of appetite; skin rashes (in some cases)
What are β-Lactam Antibiotics and what is an example?
Irreversibly inhibit enzymes involved in the final steps of cell wall synthesis. The enzymes inhibited by these drugs mediate the formation of the peptide bridges between adjacent strands of peptidoglycan. These drugs vary in their spectrum of activity; some are more active against Gram positive bacteria; whereas, others are more active against Gram negative bacteria; example, Penicillin
What are tetracyclines and what is an example?
Reversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit, blocking the attachment of tRNA to the ribosome and preventing the continuation of protein synthesis. They are effective against certain Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria; example, Doxycycline
What are sulfonamides and what is an example?
Inhibit the growth of many Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria. They are structurally similar to paraminobenzoic acid (PABA), a substrate in the pathway for folic acid biosynthesis. Because of this similarity, the enzyme that normally binds with PABA preferentially binds with the sulfonamide drugs, resulting in its competitive inhibition. Human cells are not affected by these drugs because they lack this enzyme; example, Sulfadiazine
What are fluoroquinolones and what is an example?
Inhibit one or more of a group of enzymes called topoisomerases, which maintain the supercoiling of the chromosomal DNA within the bacterial cells. The inhibition of these enzymes prevents essential cell processes. The fluoroquinolones are active against a wide variety of bacteria, including both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria; example, Ciprofloxacin
Starting from the outer ear, trace the pathway of structures to the inner ear.
1) Pinna (outer ear), 2) external auditory meatus, 3) tempanic membrane (eardrum), 4) ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes), 4) tympanic cavity, 5) eustachian tube, 5) semicircular canals, 6) cochlea, 7) vestibular nerve, 8) facial nerve, 9) cochlear nerve, 10) Internal auditory meatus
Does a higher frequency show a higher or lower pitch?
Higher pitch
Conductive vs. sensorineural hearing loss?
Conductive hearing loss - hearing loss of the outer ear; sensorineural hearing loss - hearing loss of the inner ear
What are the three steps of PCR?
1) Denaturation
2) Annealing
3) Exension
What is the difference between amniocentesis and chorionic villi sampling?
Amniocentesis involves inserting a large needle through the abdomen and into the uterus, where amniotic fluid (the fluid surrounding and protecting the baby) is removed. This fluid contains cells shed from the baby: skin cells, cells from the lining of the small intestine, or cells from the bladder. The cells in this fluid provide the DNA needed to perform genetic testing. Chorionic villus sampling, on the other hand, can be done earlier. Here, chorionic villus cells are removed from the placenta. This is done by inserting a needle vaginally and directing that needle to the placenta. A small sample of those cells - which are identical to the cells inside the baby - are removed and used for testing.
What does an MRI scan stand for? CT scan?
MRI - Magnetic Resonance Imaging
CT - Computed Tomography scan
What is the best method for being able to diagnose cancer?
Biopsy
In a microarray, what does the green color stand for? The yellow? The red?
Green - genes are being expressed in normal cells but not in cancer cells
Yellow- both genes are being expressed in both cells
Red - genes are being expressed in the cancer cells but not the healthy cells
DNA microarrays measure these differences by measuring the amount of _____ for genes that is present in a cell sample
mRNA (messenger Ribonucleic acid)
In depth, what do tumor suppressor genes do?
Tumor suppressors, such as the p53 gene, are used to control cells. When a cell does not function properly, or is in the wrong stage of the cell cycle, the gene will signal those cells to undergo apoptosis to keep them from spreading their non-functioning genes. If a tumor suppressor gene is turned off, then those non-functioning cells will continue to spread, which leads to a tumor formation which can be malignant.
What are proto-oncogenes?
Proto-oncogenes are a group of genes that cause normal cells to become cancerous when they are mutated.
What are the mutated versions of proto-oncogenes called?
Oncogenes
What does an SNP stand for?
Single nucleotide polymorphism