FAA PPL Test Prep: Ch. 11: Communication Procedures Questions

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59 Terms

1
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When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is...

A) "MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECIEVING ARDMORE VORTAC OVER."

B) “MC ALESTER STATION, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CEE BEE, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC OVER.”

C) “MC ALESTER FLIGHT SERVICE STATION, HAWK NOVEMBER SIX CHARLIE BRAVO RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER".”

A) "MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECIEVING ARDMORE VORTAC OVER."

2
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The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is

A) "FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED"

B) ”FOUR POINT FIVE”

C) “FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL”

A) "FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED"

3
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The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is

A)"TEN THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED FEET."

B) “TEN POINT FIVE”

C) "ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED."

C) "ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED."

4
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(Refer to figure 20 area 3) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?

A) Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern.

B) Contact Elizabeth City FSS for airport advisory service.

C) Contact New Bern FSS for area traffic information.

A) Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern.

5
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(Refer to figure 21, area 2) The CTAF/MULTI-COM frequency for Garrison Airport is

A) 122.8 MHz

B) 122.9 MHz

C) 123.0 MHz

B) 122.9 MHz

6
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When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?

A) When visibility is less than 1 mile.

B) When parallel runways are in use.

C) When departing from a runway intersection.

C) When departing from a runway intersection.

7
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As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of...

A) 25 miles.

B) 20 miles.

C) 10 miles.

C) 10 miles.

8
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Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that

A) weather conditions are at or above VFR minimums.

B) the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted.

C) the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

C) the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

9
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(Refer to figure 22, area 2) at Cour D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a common traffic advisory frequency (CTAF) to self announce position and intentions?

A) 122.05 MHz

B) 122.1/108.8 MHz

C) 122.8 MHz

C) 122.8 MHz

**pro tip they’re all 122.8 MHz if that’s an answer choice :)

10
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(Refer to figure 22, area 2; and figure 31) at Cour D'alene , which frequency should be used as a CTAF to monitor airport traffic?

A) 122.05 MHz

B) 135.075 MHz

C) 122.8 MHz

C) 122.8 MHz

11
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(Refer to Figure 22, area 2; and Figure 31.) What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D'Alene?

A) 135.075 MHz

B) 122.05 MHz

C) 122.8 MHz

C) 122.8 MHz

12
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(Refer to Figure 22, area 2; and Figure 31.) What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D'Alene to request fuel?

A) 122.05 MHz

B) 122.1/108.8 MHz

C) 122.8 MHz

C) 122.8 MHz

13
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(Refer to figure 25, area 3) If Dallas Executive (RBD) tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advistory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

A) 127.25 MHz

B) 122.95 MHz

C) 133.4 MHz

A) 127.25 MHz

14
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(Refer to Figure 25, area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is

A) 122.95 MHz.

B) 126.0 MHz.

C) 133.4 MHz.

B) 126.0 MHz.

15
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(Refer to figure 26, area 2) what is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown airport?

A) Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULITCOM frequency 122.9 MHz

B) Contact UNICOM when 10 miles out on 122.8 MHz.

C) Circle the airport in a left turn prior to entering traffic.

A) Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULITCOM frequency 122.9 MHz

16
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(Refer to figure 26, area 4) the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is

A)122.0 MHz

B)123.0 MHz

C)123.6 MHz

B) 123.0 MHz

17
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(Refer to figure 26, area 5) what is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County airport

A)122.0 MHz

B)122.8 MHz

C)123.6 MHz

B) 122.8 MHz

18
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Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning

A) pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain

B) nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion.

C) noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas.

C) noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas.

19
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Select the UNICOM frequencies normally assigned to stations at landing areas used exclusively as heliports.

A) 122.75 and 123.65 MHz

B) 123.0 and 122.95 MHz

C) 123.05 and 123.075 MHz

C) 123.05 and 123.075 MHz

20
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After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?

A) When advised by the tower to do so

B) Prior to turning off the runway

C) After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area

A) When advised by the tower to do so

21
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If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed

A) via taxiways and across runways, but not onto, Runway 9

B) to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required

C) via taxiways and across runways to Runway 9, where an immediate takeoff may be made

B) to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required

22
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a steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot

A) is cleared to land

B) should give way to other aircraft and continue circling

C) should return for landing

A) is cleared to land

23
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an altering red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to

A) hold position

B) exercise extreme caution

C) not land; the airport is unsafe

B) exercise extreme caution

24
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Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?

A) flashing green

B) steady green

C) flashing white

A) flashing green

25
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If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be

A) flashing red

B) steady red

C) alternating red and green

B) steady red

26
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a flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to

A) taxi at a faster speed

B) taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways

C) return to the starting point on the airport

C) return to the starting point on the airport

27
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While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should

A) discontinue the approach, fly the same traffic pattern and approach again, and land

B) exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing

C) abandon the approach, circle the airport to the right, and expecting a flashing white light when the airport is safe for landing

B) exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing

28
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If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?

A) observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower

B) enter a crosswind left and rock the wings

C) flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport

A) observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower

29
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a steady red light from the tower, for an aircraft on the ground indicates

A) Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

B) Stop

C) Taxi clear of the runway in use

B) STOP!!!!!!

30
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Why would you file a VFR flight plan with the FAA?

A) You are required to do so when flying beyond 25 NM from an airport

B) To provide traffic reports with Flight Service

C) to provide search and rescue in the event of an emergency

C) to provide search and rescue in the event of an emergency

31
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(Refer to figure 51) What information should be entered for item 15, level, on the flight plan from?

A) VFR cruising altitude

B) Aircraft service ceiling

C) Aircraft center of gravity

A) VFR cruising altitude

32
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When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft's...

A) true course

B) ground track

C) magnetic heading

B) ground track

33
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An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight: "TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

A) East

B) South

C) West

B) South

34
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An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight: "TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

A) northwest

B) northeast

C) southwest

A) northwest

35
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TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides

A) IFR separation (1,000 feet vertical and 3 miles lateral between all aircraft)

B) warning to pilots when their aircraft are in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft

C) sequencing and separation for participating in VFR aircraft

C) sequencing and separation for participating in VFR aircraft

36
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An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight: "TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

A) between directly ahead and 90* to the left

B) between directly behind and 90* to the right

C) between directly ahead and 90* to the right

C) between directly ahead and 90* to the right

37
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An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight flying north with calm winds: "TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

A) north

B) south

C) west

C) west

38
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Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as

A) safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft

B) mandatory radar servi e provided by the Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS)

C) wind shear warning at participating airports

A) safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft

39
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From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?

A) clearance delivery

B) tower, just before takeoff

C) ground control, on initial contact

C) ground control, on initial contact

40
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An operable 4096 code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?

A) Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C

B) Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL)

C) Class D and Class G (below 10,000 feet MSL)

A) Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C

41
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An operable 4096 code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in

A) Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport

B) Class D airspace

C) Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL

A) Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport

42
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When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?

A) 1200

B) 7600

C) 7700

A) 1200

43
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when operating the transponder on the VFR code (1200), what is the minimum mode the transponder must be in?

A) Mode A

B) Mode C

C) Mode F

A) Mode A

44
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If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code...

A) 0000

B) 1200

C) 496

B) 1200

45
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With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with

A) an operable VOR or TACAN receiver and an ADF reciever

B) instruments and equipment required for IFR operations

C) ADSB- Out equipment

C) ADSB- Out equipment

46
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Each person operating an aircraft equipped with ADS-B Out must operate this equipment

A) in transit mode at all times

B) when flying in controlled airspace

C) at all times at and above 10,000 feet MSL

A) in transit mode at all times

47
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What type of ADS-B Out equipment is required for aircraft operating below 18,000 feet MSL when flying in class C airspace?

A) 1090-ES

B) Universal Access Tranceiver

C) 1090-ES or Universal Access Tranceiver

C) 1090-ES or Universal Access Tranceiver

48
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For operations of an aircraft in class C airspace with inoperative ADS-B Out equipment, a request must be made to the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace

A) at least 1 hour before the operation

B) at any time

C) 24 hours before the proposed operation

B) at any time

49
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ADS-B Out equipment broadcasts the aircraft's

A) three-dimensional position

B) three-dimensional velocity

C) three-dimensional position and velocity

C) three-dimensional position and velocity

50
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unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires ADS-B?

A) landing at an airport with an operating control tower

B) overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL

C) flying under the shelf of Class C airspace

overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL

51
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When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?

A) 0700, 1700, 7000

B) 1200, 1500, 7000

C) 7500, 7600, 7700

C) 7500, 7600, 7700

52
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When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?

A) 7200

B) 7000

C) 7500

C) 7500

53
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unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should sqwawk which VFR code?

A) 1200

B) 7600

C) 7700

A) 1200

54
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When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on

A) 118.0 MHz.

B) 406 MHz.

C) 123.0 MHz.

B) 406 MHz.

55
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When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?

A) after any inadvertent activation of the ELT

B) when the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour

C) when the ELT can no longer be heard over the airplane’s communication radio receiver

B) when the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour

56
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When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?

A) every 24 months

B) when 50 percent of their useful life expires

C) at the time of each 100-hour or annual inspection

B) when 50 percent of their useful life expires

57
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When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?

A) after one-half the battery's useful life

B) during each annual and 100-hour inspection

C) every 24 calendar months

A) after one-half the battery's useful life

58
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When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?

A) anytime

B) at 15 and 45 minutes past the hour

C) during the first 5 minutes after the hour

C) during the first 5 minutes after the hour

59
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Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?

A) turn off the aircraft ELT after landing

B) ask the airport tower if they are receiving an ELT signal

C) monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown

C) monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown