Final Exam Review – Abdomen, Skull, GI & Urinary Radiography

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51 Terms

1
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How many chapters are covered on the final exam and which chapter has the most questions?

Five chapters are covered; Chapter 11 (Skull) has the most questions with 45.

2
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Which two abdominal quadrants are used on the exam (four-quadrant system or nine-region system)?

The four-quadrant system only; no questions on the nine-region system.

3
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What are the three sections of the pharynx?

Nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx.

4
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Which pharyngeal sections belong to both the respiratory and digestive systems?

Oropharynx and laryngopharynx.

5
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If barium fills the fundus of the stomach on a radiograph, what projection is most likely shown?

An AP projection with the patient supine.

6
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Which portion of the small intestine is the shortest? The longest?

Shortest: duodenum; Longest: ileum.

7
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Which segment of the small intestine displays a feathery appearance on barium studies?

The jejunum.

8
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Correctly spell the intestinal portion that ends at the ileocecal valve.

I-l-e-u-m (ileum).

9
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What are the iliac ‘wings’ of the pelvis spelled?

I-l-i-u-m (ilium).

10
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Name the two layers of the peritoneum and indicate which is outer vs. inner.

Parietal (outer) and visceral (inner) peritoneum.

11
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What is the double-fold of peritoneum that attaches small intestine loops to the posterior abdominal wall?

The mesentery.

12
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What peritoneal fold drapes over the anterior abdomen and is nicknamed the ‘fatty apron’?

The greater omentum (also has a lesser omentum).

13
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Define ascites.

Accumulation of free fluid in the peritoneal cavity.

14
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Define ileus and distinguish mechanical from adynamic (paralytic) types.

Ileus = bowel obstruction; mechanical (physical blockage such as volvulus or intussusception) vs. adynamic (loss of peristalsis, often post-surgery).

15
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Give two classic mechanical obstructions discussed in class.

Intussusception (telescoping) and volvulus (twisting).

16
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Where is the CR centered for a routine KUB abdomen?

At the level of the iliac crest.

17
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Which anatomical landmarks must be included on a KUB image?

Kidneys superiorly and symphysis pubis inferiorly.

18
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How is a hypersthenic patient handled for a KUB?

Take two cross-wise (landscape) images to include all anatomy.

19
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Which single decubitus position is performed to demonstrate intraperitoneal air in an abdomen?

Left lateral decubitus (air rises up along the liver side).

20
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Why is the left lateral decubitus preferred over the right for abdominal air-fluid studies?

Avoids confusion with the gastric air bubble that sits on the left side.

21
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Which structure is palpated to ensure the symphysis pubis will appear on an abdomen radiograph?

The greater trochanter.

22
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On an AP abdomen, if the right iliac wing appears elongated which direction is the patient rotated?

Rotated toward the right side.

23
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List one advantage and one disadvantage of a PA abdomen compared to an AP.

Advantage: less tissue thickness (dose); Disadvantage: increased OID for kidneys, possible magnification.

24
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What are the four bones of the skull cap (calvarium)?

Frontal, occipital, right parietal, left parietal.

25
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How many bones form the adult cranium?

Eight.

26
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Name the three portions of the temporal bone.

Squamous, mastoid, and petrous portions.

27
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Which portion of the temporal bone contains the organs of hearing and equilibrium?

The petrous portion (petrous pyramids).

28
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Which air-filled cells occupy the mastoid portion?

Mastoid air cells.

29
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What two processes unite to form the zygomatic arch?

Zygomatic process of the temporal bone & temporal process of the zygomatic bone.

30
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Which projection best demonstrates maxillary sinuses?

Parietoacanthial (Waters) projection.

31
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Which projection best demonstrates the frontal sinuses?

PA axial (Caldwell) projection.

32
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Which single projection shows all paranasal sinuses simultaneously?

Lateral skull.

33
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For CRANIUM AP/PA rotation, what separation do you inspect?

Equal distance from the lateral orbital margins to cranial cortex (or mandibular rami to cortex).

34
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For skull TILT on an AP/PA, what indicator is used?

Vertex (top) shift; compare vertical distance from mandibular rami to cranial cortex—larger side indicates tilt toward that side.

35
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In the Towne (AP axial) skull, which structure must appear within the foramen magnum?

The dorsum sellae and posterior clinoids.

36
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What CR angle is used for a Towne projection referencing the OML?

30° caudad to OML (37° to IOML).

37
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If the dorsum sellae is projected above (high) the foramen magnum on a Towne view, what is the positioning error?

Insufficient CR angulation or inadequate chin tuck (not enough flexion).

38
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Caldwell projection: what CR angle and petrous-ridge placement indicate correct positioning?

15° caudad; petrous ridges in the lower one-third of the orbits.

39
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Waters projection: which line is perpendicular and where should the petrous ridges appear?

MML perpendicular; petrous ridges just inferior to the maxillary sinuses.

40
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Modified Waters: list three differences from standard Waters.

LML perpendicular, OML forms ~55° angle to IR, petrous ridges in lower half of maxillary sinuses.

41
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For the SMV (submentovertical) projection which positioning line is parallel to the IR?

IOML (infraorbitomeatal line).

42
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Name the projections used to survey orbits: overall orbit, infra-orbital rim, and supra-orbital rim.

Overall orbit: Waters; Infra-orbital rim: Modified Waters; Supra-orbital rim: Caldwell.

43
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Axiolateral oblique mandible: what head rotation visualizes ramus, body, and mentum?

0° = ramus; 30° = body; 45° = mentum (chin); 15° = general survey.

44
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What is the maximum combined CR angle and head tilt for axiolateral mandible projections?

25° total.

45
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Centering for lateral skull vs. lateral facial bones?

Lateral skull: 2 inches (5 cm) superior to EAM; Lateral facial bones: at zygoma (midway outer canthus–EAM).

46
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List three functions of the paranasal sinuses.

Lighten the skull, warm and moisten inhaled air, act as resonating chambers for voice.

47
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Largest movable bone of the face? Largest immovable?

Movable: mandible; Immovable: maxilla.

48
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Which facial bone is associated with the lacrimal (tear) ducts?

The lacrimal bone.

49
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What is the basic patient NPO preparation time for an upper-GI series?

NPO for 8 hours prior to the exam.

50
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What does the liver produce and what does the gallbladder do with it?

Liver produces bile; gallbladder stores and concentrates bile.

51
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Name the enlarged chamber where the common bile duct and pancreatic