Irene Gold Board Reviews General Anatomy Practice Questions

Which of the following comes first in embryological development

a. Thyroid

b. Parathyroid

c. Pineal gland

d. Sella turcica

a. Thyroid

Osteons run transversely and obliquely in which of the following

a. lacunae

b. Volkmann's canals

c. Diaphysis

d. Metaphysis

b. Volkmann's canals

Which structure contains both smooth and skeletal muscle

a. Trachea

b. Bronchi

c. Esophagus

d. Heart

c. Esophagus

The joint in the leg consisting of fibrous cartilage is called a ___ joint

a. Diarthrosis

b. Synarthrosis

c. Amphiarthrosis

d. Syndesmosis

d. Syndesmosis

Which nerve is a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus

a. Median

b. Ulnar

c. Radial

d. Musculocutaneous

c. Radial

Which of the following is found in the left atrium

a. Openings for the pulmonary arteries

b. SA node

c. Crista terminalis

d. Opening for the coronary artery

c. Crista terminalis

Where does the radius connect with the humerus?

a. Medial epicondyle

b. Lateral epicondyle

c. Trochlea

d. Capitulum

d. Capitulum

The esophagus opens into which part of the stomach?

a. Cardiac

b. Fundus

c. Corpus

d. Pylorus

a. Cardiac

Which of the following is the covering of a muscle fascicle

a. Perimysium

b. Epineurium

c. Endomysium

d. Epimysium

a. Perimysium

Which of the following lies adjacent to the radial groove

a. Radial tuberosity

b. Deltoid tuberosity

c. Olecranon fossa

d. Radial fossa

b. Deltoid tuberosity

In which region of the abdomen is the bladder located

a. Umbilical

b. Inguinal

c. Hypogastric

d. Hypochondriac

c. Hypogastric

Which of the following is derived from the neural crest

a. Kidney

b. Thyroid

c. Suprarenal

d. Spleen

c. Suprarenal

Which veins make up the brachiocephalic vein?

a. Subclavian and internal jugular

b. Subclavian and common carotid

c. Common carotid and external jugular

d. External and internal jugular

a. Subclavian and internal jugular

Which type of joint is a fibrocartilaginous joint

a. Syndesmosis

b. Diarthrosis

c. Symphysis

d. Synchondrosis

c. Symphysis

What holds the odont and the periodontal ligament in place?

a. Pulp

b. Enamel

c. Gomphosis

d. Cementum

d. Cementum

Which of the following ligaments maintains the longitudinal arch of the foot?

a. Talofibular

b. Plantar calcaneonavicular

c. Tibionavicular

d. Tibiocalcaneal

b. Plantar calcaneonavicular

What is the function of the dust cells of the lung

a. Secrete surfactant

b. Immunity for the pulmonary alveoli

c. Increase surface tension

d. Make macrophages

b. Immunity for the pulmonary alveoli

The nasolacrimal duct drains into which of the following

a. Superior nasal meatus

b. Inferior nasal meatus

c. Middle nasal meatus

d. Amygdaloid

b. Inferior nasal meatus

Which shoulder muscle is injured if you are unable to medially rotate the shoulder?

a. Supraspinatus

b. Infraspinatus

c. Teres minor

d. Subscapularis

d. Subscapularis

Which of the following ligaments prevents hyperextension of the hip?

a. Ischiofemoral ligament

b. Pubofemoral ligament

c. Transverse acetabular ligament

d. Iliofemoral ligament

d. Iliofemoral ligament

The skin covering the inguinal ligaments is innervated by which spinal nerve?

a. T12

b. L2

c. L10

d. S1

b. L2

The majority of lymph is returned to the body by the ___

a. Thoracic duct

b. Right lymphatic duct

c. SVC

d. IVC

a. Thoracic duct

What is the name of the line that separates the anterior ⅔ of the tongue from the posterior ⅓

a. Circumvallate

b. Sulcus terminalis

c. Fungiform

d. Frenulum

b. Sulcus terminalis

What type of joint is the AC joint?

a. Trochoid

b. Ovodi

c. Planar

d. Ball and socket

c. Planar

Which of the following is located directly posterior to the manubrium

a. Thyroid

b. Cricoid cartilage

c. Thymus gland

d. Arytenoid cartilage

c. Thymus gland

Where in the GI tract are peyer's patches located?

a. Duodenum

b. Jejunum

c. Ileum

d. Cecum

c. Ileum

Which of the following is derived from the hindgut

a. Ascending colon

b. Descending colon

c. Ileum

d. First ⅔ of transverse colon

b. Descending colon

What is the term used to describe the esophagus connected to the trachea

a. Fistula

b. Stenosis

c. Obliteration

d. Atresia

a. Fistula

Which of the following bones is not weight bearing

a. Tibia

b. Fibula

c. Talus

d. Calcaneus

b. Fibula

Which nerve is responsible for extension of the upper extremities

a. median

b. Ulnar

c. Radial

d. Musculocutaneous

c. Radial

Which muscle is responsible for eversion of the foot

a. Peroneus longus

b. Tibialis anterior

c. Extensor hallucis longus

d. Tibialis posterior

a. Peroneus longus

A fracture in the neck of the fibula can result in damage to which nerve/

a. Deep fibular

b. Superficial fibular

c. Tibial

d. Common peroneal

d. Common peroneal

Which of the following lies immediately superior to the ureters in a female

a. Renal cortex

b. Renal medulla

c. Renal pelvis

d. Urinary bladder

c. Renal pelvis

The hanging motion of the cubital joint occurs between ___ and ___

a. Radius and ulna

b. Radius and humerus

c. Ulna and humerus

d. Ulna and carpals

c. Ulna and humerus

Which of the followings has an attachment to the olecranon

a. Brachioradialis

b. Biceps brachii

c. Triceps brachii

d. Pronator teres

c. Triceps brachii

Which of the following muscles prevents contralateral hip drop?

a. Gluteus maximus

b. Gluteus medius

c. Rectus abdominis

d. Rectus femoris

b. Gluteus medius

Which muscle attaches to the spine of the scapula, acromion process and lateral ⅓ of the clavicle

a. Levator scapulae

b. Rhomboid major

c. Serratus anterior

d. Trapezius

d. Trapezius

What do the beta cells of the pancreas produce

a. Glucagon

b. Somatostatin

c. Norepinephrine

d. Insulin

d. Insulin

Which muscle attaches to the plantar surface of the calcaneus

a. Sartorius

b. Gastrocnemius

c. EHL

d. Tibialis anterior

b. Gastrocnemius

What separates the cerebral hemispheres from the cerebellum

a. Tentorim cerebelli

b. Falx cerebri

c. Falx cerebelli

d. Corpus callosum

a. Tentorim cerebelli

The human placenta is divided into 15-20 lobes, what are these lobes called?

a. Chorionic villi

b. Cotyledons

c. Septa

d. gyri

b. Cotyledons

Where will an increase in fluid outside the lung consolidate?

a. Costophrenic angle

b. Costodiaphragmatic recess

c. Costosternal angle

d. Costothoracic access

b. Costodiaphragmatic recess

Which muscle is not part of the pes anserine bursa

a. Sartorius

b. Semimembranosus

c. Semitendinosus

d. Gracilis

b. Semimembranosus

Which ligament wraps around the head of the radius?

a.Radial collateral

b. Ulnar collateral

c. Annular

d. Quadrate

c. Annular

During embryonic development, what happens during apoptosis

a. Deconstruction of cells

b. Protein folding

c. Immunity conserved

d. Reorganization of cells

a. Deconstruction of cells

Which of the following best defines angiogenesis

a. Redirection of blood vessels

b. Cytokines used in blood vessel development

c. Utilization of nitric oxide by blood vessel formation

d. Formation of new blood vessels

d. Formation of new blood vessels

What ligament does the urachus become after birth

a. Round

b. Broad

c. Median umbilical

d. Falciform

c. Median umbilical

Which of the following fetal structures does blood bypass the liver?

a. Ductus venosus

b. Ductus arteriosus

c. Foramen ovale

d. Gubernaculum

a. Ductus venosus

Which part of the digestive system has haustral contractions

a. Pancreas

b. stomach

c. Small intestine

d. Large intestine

d. Large intestine

The vermiform appendix is an outpouching of which of the following?

a. Ascending colon

b. Cecum

c. Sigmoid colon

d. Anal canal

b. Cecum

Which of the following ligaments goes into the formation of the medial arch of the foot

a. Plantar calcaneonavicular

b. Tibionavicular

c. Tibiocalcaneal

d. Talofibular

a. Plantar calcaneonavicular

If the muscles of inspiration are fully contracted, how are the lungs affected

a. Increased lung volume

b. Decreased lung volume

c. Positive intrathoracic pressure

d. No effect

a. Increased lung volume

Which epithelium is found in the vagina

a. Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

b. Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

c. Simple cuboidal epithelium

d. Simple columnar epithelium

b. Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

What muscle of respiration, when contracted, allows for respiration but does not move the rib cage?

a. Intercostals

b. Parasternal

c. Scalene

d. Diaphragm

d. Diaphragm

Which of the following muscles is considered to be epaxial

a. Longus colli

b. Rhomboids

c. Erector spinae

d. Rectus abdominis

c. Erector spinae

The hepatic flexure is located where the ___ meets the ___

a. Transverse colon; descending colon

b. Ascending colon; transverse colon

c. Pancreas; duodenum

d. Descending colon; sigmoid colon

b. Ascending colon; transverse colon

Which of the following is not in the left lung?

a. Cardiac impression

b. Descending aortic impression

c. Horizontal fissure

d. Lingula

c. Horizontal fissure

Cardiac tamponade is caused by which of the following

a. Increased fluid in the pericardial space

b. Excess fluid in the left atrium

c. Increased pressure at the apex of the heart

d. Pulmonary malfunction

a. Increased fluid in the pericardial space

The second rib attaches to the ____

a. Top of the manubrium

b. Sternal angle

c. Xiphoid process

d. Scalene tubercle

b. Sternal angle

Which of the following does not attach to the manubrium?

a. First rib

b. Second rib

c. Clavicle

d. Xiphoid process

d. Xiphoid process

Where does the coronary sinus enter the heart?

a. Right ventricle

b. Left ventricle

c. Right atrium

d. Left atrium

c. Right atrium

Which of the following is unique to the right atrium?

a. Purkinje fibers

b. SA node

c. Papillary muscle

d. Interatrial septum

b. SA node

Which nerve is responsible for eversion of the foot?

a. Deep peroneal

b. Common peroneal

c. Superficial fibular

d. Tibial

c. Superficial fibular

Which of the following are the largest taste buds

a. Fungiform

b. Filiform

c. Vallate

d. Foliate

c. Vallate

Which part of the pancreas is the most common part to develop cancer?

a. Head

b. Tail

c. Neck

d. Body

a. Head

What triggers the defecation reflex?

a. Stretch of sigmoid colon

b. Tightening of ileocecal valve

c. Rectal contraction

d. External sphincter

c. Rectal contraction

The inferior portion of the thoracic duct is formed by the ___

a. Cisterna chyli

b. Cardiac plexus

c. Superior mesenteric vein

d. Portal vein

a. Cisterna chyli

The cremaster muscle originates from the ___

a. Internal oblique

b. External oblique

c. Rectus abdominis

d. Transversus abdominis

a. Internal oblique

A 3 mo child present with urination from the belly button

a. Ectopic uterus

b. Ectopic kidney

c. Ureter fistula

d. Ectopic urethra

c. Ureter fistula

Which area of the fallopian tube is the most common location of ectopic pregnancy

a. Infundibulum

b. Ampulla

c. Isthmus

d. Interstitial

b. Ampulla

AVN of the femur head in children is known as

a. Acetabular displacement

b. Hip dysplasia

c. Slipped capital epiphysis

d. Legg calve perthes

d. Legg calve perthes

Posterior displacement of the distal radius after a fracture is know as a ___ fracture

a. Torus

b. Galeazzi

c. Colles

d. Smith

c. Colles

What is the most superior orifice of the fallopian tube in relation to the uterine opening

a. Ampulla

b. Infundibulum

c. Interstitial

d. Isthmus

d. Isthmus

The periodontal ligaments connect which of the following?

a. Dentin

b. Enamel

c. Alveolar bone

d. Pulp

c. Alveolar bone

What nerve would be affected if the muscle that internally rotated the arm was damaged?

a. Suprascapular

b. Upper subscapular

c. Lower subscapular

d. Axillary

b. Upper subscapular

c. Lower subscapular

(two right answers)

What nerve is formed alongside the posterior extensors?

a. Axillary

b. Radial

c. Median

d. Ulnar

b. Radial

What is the cervical nerve supply to the trapezius?

a. C1/C2

b. C2/C3

c. C3/C4

d. C4/C5

c. C3/C4

What nerve is palpable on the medial epicondyle of the humerus?

a. Radial

b. Ulnar

c. Median

d. Musculocutaneous

b. Ulnar

Compression of the interdigital nerve would cause which of the following?

a. Carpal tunnel

b. Morton's neuroma

c. Tarsal tunnel syndrome

d. Dequervain's disease

b. Morton's neuroma

During muscular arm development, the upper arm extensors are innervated by which nerve?

a. Radial

b. Ulnar

c. Median

d. Musculocutaneous

a. Radial

What muscle is the primary flexor of the hip?

a, Quadriceps

b. Biceps femoris

c. Psoas

d. Rectus femoris

c. Psoas

Damage to the neck of the fibula would most likely affect which nerve?

a. Superficial fibular

b. Deep fibular

c. Tibial

d. Common Fibular

d. Common Fibular

The medial plantar aspect of the sustentaculum tali has a groove for which muscle?

a. Flexor hallucis longus

b. Peroneus brevis

c. Tibialis anterior

d. Peroneus longus

a. Flexor hallucis longus

What is the primary action of the soleus muscle?

a. Plantar flexion

b. Dorsiflexion

c. Eversion

d. Inversion

a. Plantar flexion

The deltoid ligament limits what motion of the foot?

a. Inversion

b. Eversion

c. Plantar flexion

d. Dorsiflexion

b. Eversion

Which of the following takes calcium out of bone

a. Osteoclast

b. Osteoblast

c. Osteocyte

d. Haversian canals

a. Osteoclast

The pituitary gland sits in the sella turcica of which bone?

a. Frontal

b. Vomer

c. Sphenoid

d. Ethmoid

c. Sphenoid

Which of the following completes the coracoid ligament?

a. Coracoclavicular ligament

b. Triangular ligament

c. Acromioclavicular ligament

d. Glenohumeral ligament

a. Coracoclavicular ligament

Which area of the scapula includes the costal surface?

a. Supraspinatus fossa

b. Infraspinatus fossa

c. Glenoid

d. Subscapular fossa

d. Subscapular fossa

Which of the following is a macrophage of the liver?

a. Dust cells

b. Kupffer cells

c. Downey

d. Langerhans

b. Kupffer cells

Which of the following is the primary muscle of the pelvic diaphragm?

a. Coccygeus

b. Levator ani

c. Pubococcygeus

d. Iliococcygeus

b. Levator ani

Which of the following separates the frontal and parietal bones?

a. Sagittal suture

b. Lambdoidal suture

c. Obelion

d. Coronal suture

d. Coronal suture

The external jugular vein drains into the ___

a. Subscapular vein

b. Jugular vein

c. Subclavian vein

d. Brachiocephalic vein

c. Subclavian vein

Which of the following is a multi-unit smooth muscle

a. Uterus

b. Iris

c. Ureters

d. Cornea

b. Iris

The internal jugular vein drains into which of the following?

a. Subclavian vein

b. Brachiocephalic vein

c. Transverse vein

d. Vertebral vein

b. Brachiocephalic vein

Which of the following is not likely to occur on a secondary curve?

a. Scoliosis

b. Hyperkyphosis

c. Gibbus deformity

d. Scoliosis

b. Hyperkyphosis

The capitulum is unique to which bone?

a. Humerus

b. Radius

c. Ulna

d. Triquetrum

a. Humerus

What occurs to allow voluntary release of urine from the urethra?

a. Internal urethral sphincter contracts

b. External urethral sphincter contracts

c. External urethral orifice relaxes

d. Detrusor muscle contracts

c. External urethral orifice relaxes

Where does the psoas muscle attach?

a. Greater trochanter

b. Lesser trochanter

c. Linea aspera

d. Intertrochanteric line

b. Lesser trochanter

What is the name of the transverse canal in bone that contains the nutrient artery

a. Volkamn's canal

b. Lacunae

c. Lamellae

d. Osteocyte

a. Volkamn's canal