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c. First attenuated vaccines
Which of the following can be attributed to Pasteur?
a. Discovery of opsonins
b. Observation of phagocytosis
c. First attenuated vaccines
d. Theory of humoral immunity
d. Monocyte
Which WBC is capable of further differentiation in tissues?
a. Neutrophil
b. Eosinophil
c. Basophil
d. Monocyte
a. Innate immunity
The cells that Metchnikoff first observed are associated with which phenomenon?
a. Innate immunity
b. Adaptive immunity
c. Humoral immunity
d. Specific immunity
a. Bone marrow
Where are all undifferentiated lymphocytes made?
a. Bone marrow
b. Spleen
c. Thymus
d. Lymph nodes
d. They kill target cells without prior exposure to them.
Which of the following statements is true of NK cells?
a. They rely upon memory for antigen recognition.
b. They have the same CD groups as B cells.
c. They are found mainly in lymph nodes.
d. They kill target cells without prior exposure to them.
b. Dendritic cell
Which cell is the most potent phagocytic cell in the tissue?
a. Neutrophil
b. Dendritic cell
c. Eosinophil
d. Basophil
a. innate immunity.
The ability of an individual to resist infection by means of normally present body functions is called
a. innate immunity.
b. humoral immunity.
c. adaptive immunity.
d. cross-immunity.
d. neutrophil.
A cell characterized by a nucleus with two to five lobes, a diameter of 10 to 15 μm, and a large number of neutral staining granules is identified as a(n)
a. eosinophil.
b. monocyte.
c. basophil.
d. neutrophil.
c. Thymus
Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?
a. Lymph node
b. Spleen
c. Thymus
d. MALT
a. Unstimulated B cells
What type of cells would be found in a primary follicle?
a. Unstimulated B cells
b. Germinal centers
c. Plasma cells
d. Memory cells
b. Presence of surface antibody
Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of B cells?
a. Act as helper cells
b. Presence of surface antibody
c. Able to kill target cells without prior exposure
d. Active in phagocytosis
a. Secondary lymphoid organs
Where do lymphocytes mainly come in contact with antigens?
a. Secondary lymphoid organs
b. Bloodstream
c. Bone marrow
d. Thymus
b. CD4
Which of the following is found on the T cell subset known as helpers?
a. CD19
b. CD4
c. CD8
d. CD56
c. Specificity for each individual pathogen
Which of the following statements best characterizes adaptive immunity?
a. Relies on normally present body functions
b. Response is similar for each exposure
c. Specificity for each individual pathogen
d. Involves only cellular immunity
a. produce cytokines that regulate both innate and adaptive immunity.
The main function of T cells in the immune response is to
a. produce cytokines that regulate both innate and adaptive immunity.
b. produce antibodies.
c. participate actively in phagocytosis.
d. respond to target cells without prior exposure.
b. Neutralization of toxins by serum
Which of the following is a part of humoral immunity?
a. Cells involved in phagocytosis
b. Neutralization of toxins by serum
c. Macrophages and mast cells in the tissue
d. T and B cells in lymph nodes
c. the condition of being resistant to disease.
Immunity can be defined as
a. the study of medicines used to treat diseases.
b. a specific population at risk for a disease.
c. the condition of being resistant to disease.
d. the study of the noncellular portion of the blood.
d. eosinophils.
A blood cell that has reddish staining granules and is able to kill large parasites describes
a. basophils.
b. monocytes.
c. neutrophils.
d. eosinophils.
c. It collects fluid from the tissues.
Which of the following statements best describes a lymph node?
a. It is considered a primary lymphoid organ.
b. It removes old RBCs.
c. It collects fluid from the tissues.
d. It is where B cells mature.
b. clusters of differentiation (CD).
Antigenic groups identified by different sets of antibodies reacting in a similar manner to certain standard cell lines best describes
a. cytokines.
b. clusters of differentiation (CD).
c. neutrophilic granules.
d. opsonins.
d. found on host cells.
All of the following are characteristics of an effective immunogen except
a. internal complexity.
b. large molecular weight.
c. the presence of numerous epitopes.
d. found on host cells.
b. Antigenic only when coupled to a carrier
Which of the following best describes a hapten?
a. Cannot react with antibody
b. Antigenic only when coupled to a carrier
c. Has multiple determinant sites
d. A large chemically complex molecule
a. Protein with a molecular weight of 200,000
Which would be the most effective immunogen?
a. Protein with a molecular weight of 200,000
b. Nylon polymer with a molecular weight of 250,000
c. Polysaccharide with a molecular weight of 220,000
d. Protein with a molecular weight of 175,000
c. A weightlifter who is 35 years old
Which of the following individuals would likely respond most strongly to a bacterial infection?
a. An adult who is 75 years of age
b. A malnourished 40-year-old
c. A weightlifter who is 35 years old
d. A newborn baby
d. A key portion of the immunogen
Which best describes an epitope?
a. A peptide that must be at least 10,000 MW
b. An area of an immunogen recognized only by T cells
c. A segment of sequential amino acids only
d. A key portion of the immunogen
a. Protects antigen from being degraded
Adjuvants act by which of the following methods?
a. Protects antigen from being degraded
b. Facilitates rapid escape from the tissues
c. Limits the area of the immune response
d. Decreases number of APCs
b. exists in unrelated plants or animals.
A heterophile antigen is one that
a. is a self-antigen.
b. exists in unrelated plants or animals.
c. has been used previously to stimulate antibody response.
d. is from the same species but is different from the host.
a. They are found on B cells and macrophages.
Which of the following is true of class II MHC (HLA) antigens?
a. They are found on B cells and macrophages.
b. They are found on all nucleated cells.
c. They all originate at one locus.
d. They are coded for on chromosome 9.
a. CD4+ T cells
Class II MHC molecules are recognized by which of the following?
a. CD4+ T cells
b. CD8+ T cells
c. Natural killer cells
d. Neutrophils
c. They transport peptides into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum.
Which of the following best describes the role of TAP?
a. They bind to class II molecules to help block the antigen-binding site.
b. They bind to class I proteins in proteasomes.
c. They transport peptides into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum.
d. They help cleave peptides for transport to endosomes.
b. Blocks binding of endogenous peptides
What is the purpose of the invariant chain in antigen processing associated with class II MHC molecules?
a. Helps transport peptides to the binding site
b. Blocks binding of endogenous peptides
c. Binds to CD8+ T cells
d. Cleaves peptides into the proper size for binding
c. Class II molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD4+ T cells.
An individual is recovering from a bacterial infection and tests positive for antibodies to a protein normally found in the cytoplasm of this bacterium. Which of the following statements is true of this situation?
a. Class I molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD8+ T cells.
b. Class I molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD4+ T cells.
c. Class II molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD4+ T cells.
d. B cells have recognized bacterial antigen without help from T cells.
a. Transplantation of a kidney from one individual to another
In relation to a human, alloantigens would need to be considered in which of the following events?
a. Transplantation of a kidney from one individual to another
b. Vaccination with the polysaccharide coat of a bacterial cell
c. Oral administration of a live but heat-killed virus particle
d. Grafting skin from one area of the body to another
b. Binds peptides made within the cell
Which is characteristic of class I MHC molecules?
a. Consists of one α and one β chain
b. Binds peptides made within the cell
c. Able to bind whole proteins
d. Coded for by DR, DP, and DQ genes
d. Protect fetal tissue from destruction by NK cells
Class I MHC antigens E and G serve which function?
a. Enhance the response by macrophages
b. Transport antigen for recognition by CD4+ T cells
c. Bind to A, B, and C antigens to protect the
binding site
d. Protect fetal tissue from destruction by NK cells
c. Only immunogens can trigger an immune response.
Which best explains the difference between immunogens and antigens?
a. Only antigens are large enough to be recognized by T cells.
b. Only immunogens can react with antibody.
c. Only immunogens can trigger an immune response.
d. Only antigens are recognized as foreign.
b. haplotype.
When a child inherits one set of six HLA genes together from one parent, this is called a(n)
a. genotype.
b. haplotype.
c. phenotype.
d. allotype.
a. Class I
HLA molecules A, B, and C belong to which MHC class?
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV
a. opsonization.
The term for enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum proteins is
a. opsonization.
b. agglutination.
c. solubilization.
d. chemotaxis.
c. Lysozyme
Which of the following plays an important role as an external defense mechanism?
a. Phagocytosis
b. C-reactive protein
c. Lysozyme
d. Complement
c. decreased capillary permeability.
The process of inflammation is characterized by all of the following except
a. increased blood supply to the area.
b. migration of WBCs.
c. decreased capillary permeability.
d. appearance of acute-phase reactants.
a. Innate
Skin, lactic acid secretions, stomach acidity, and the motion of cilia represent which type of immunity?
a. Innate
b. Cross
c. Adaptive
d. Auto
d. phagolysosome
The structure formed by the fusion of engulfed mate- rial and enzymatic granules within the phagocytic cell is called a
a. phagosome.
b. lysosome.
c. vacuole.
d. phagolysosome
b. Competing with potential pathogens
The presence of human microbiota (normal flora) acts as a defense mechanism by which of the following methods?
a. Maintaining an acid environment
b. Competing with potential pathogens
c. Keeping phagocytes in the area
d. Coating mucosal surfaces
c. diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection.
Measurement of CRP levels can be used for all of the following except
a. monitoring drug therapy with anti-inflammatory agents.
b. tracking the progress of an organ transplant.
c. diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection.
d. determining active phases of rheumatoid arthritis.
b. recognizing molecules that are unique to pathogens.
Pathogen recognition receptors act by
a. recognizing molecules common to both host cells and pathogens.
b. recognizing molecules that are unique to pathogens.
c. helping to spread infection because they are found on pathogens.
d. all recognizing the same pathogens.
d. All of the above
Which of the following are characteristics of acute-phase reactants?
a. Rapid increase following infection
b. Enhancement of phagocytosis
c. Nonspecific indicators of inflammation
d. All of the above
c. Hypochlorite ions
Which is the most significant agent formed in the phagolysosome for the elimination of microorganisms?
a. Proteolytic enzymes
b. Hydrogen ions
c. Hypochlorite ions
d. Superoxides
a. Haptoglobin
Which acute-phase reactant helps to prevent formation of peroxides and free radicals that may damage tissues?
a. Haptoglobin
b. Fibrinogen
c. Ceruloplasmin
d. Serum amyloid A
d. They enhance phagocytosis.
Which statement best describes Toll-like receptors (TLRs)?
a. They protect adult flies from infection.
b. They are found on all host cells.
c. They only play a role in adaptive immunity.
d. They enhance phagocytosis.
a. CRP acts before the antibody appears.
The action of CRP can be distinguished from that of an antibody because
a. CRP acts before the antibody appears.
b. only the antibody triggers the complement cascade. c. binding of the antibody is calcium-dependent.
d. only CRP acts as an opsonin.
b. Innate immunity depends upon normally present body functions.
How does innate immunity differ from adaptive immunity?
a. Innate immunity requires prior exposure to a pathogen.
b. Innate immunity depends upon normally present body functions.
c. Innate immunity develops later than adaptive immunity.
d. Innate immunity is more specific than adaptive immunity.
b. Alpha1-antitrypsin
A 40-year-old male who is a smoker develops symp- toms of premature emphysema. The symptoms may be caused by a deficiency of which of the following acute-phase reactants?
a. Haptoglobin
b. Alpha1-antitrypsin
c. Fibrinogen
d. Ceruloplasmin
d. They are able to kill target cells without previous exposure to them.
Which statement best describes NK cells?
a. Their response against pathogens is very specific.
b. They only react when an abundance of MHC antigens is present.
c. They react when both an inhibitory and activating signal is triggered.
d. They are able to kill target cells without previous exposure to them.
b. Class II
1. Which MHC molecule is necessary for antigen recognition by CD4+ T cells?
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. No MHC molecule is necessary.
d. It consists of a limited number of repeating determinants.
Which would be characteristic of a T-independent antigen?
a. The IgG antibody is produced exclusively.
b. A large number of memory cells are produced.
c. Antigens bind only one receptor on B cells.
d. It consists of a limited number of repeating determinants.
a. Production of antibody by plasma cells
Humoral immunity refers to which of the following?
a. Production of antibody by plasma cells
b. Production of cytokines by T cells
c. Elimination of virally infected cells by cytotoxic cells
d. Downregulation of the immune response
a. Bone marrow
Where does antigen-independent maturation of B lymphocytes take place?
a. Bone marrow
b. Thymus
c. Spleen
d. Lymph nodes
c. MHC antigens
In the thymus, positive selection of immature T cells is based upon recognition of which of the following?
a. Self-antigens
b. Stress proteins
c. MHC antigens
d. μ chains
b. IgM and IgD
Which of these are found on a mature B cell?
a. IgG and IgD
b. IgM and IgD
c. Alpha and beta chains
d. CD3
d. They produce granzymes that stimulate apoptosis.
How do cytotoxic T cells kill target cells?
a. They produce antibodies that bind to the cell.
b. They engulf the cell by phagocytosis.
c. They stop protein synthesis in the target cell.
d. They produce granzymes that stimulate apoptosis.
c. Cytokines
Which of the following can be attributed to antigen-stimulated T cells?
a. Humoral response
b. Plasma cells
c. Cytokines
d. Antibody
a. μ chains in the cytoplasm
Which is a distinguishing feature of a pre-B cell?
a. μ chains in the cytoplasm
b. Complete IgM on the surface
c. Presence of CD21 antigen
d. Presence of CD25 antigen
b. As the cell becomes an immature B cell
When does genetic rearrangement for coding of antibody light chains take place during B-cell development?
a. Before the pre-B cell stage
b. As the cell becomes an immature B cell
c. Not until the cell becomes a mature B cell
d. When the B cell becomes a plasma cell
b. CD4
Which of the following antigens are found on the T-cell subset known as helper/inducers?
a. CD3
b. CD4
c. CD8
d. CD11
d. Lymph nodes
Where does the major portion of antibody production occur?
a. Peripheral blood
b. Bone marrow
c. Thymus
d. Lymph nodes
c. CD2+CD3+CD4-CD8-
Which of the following would represent a double- negative thymocyte?
a. CD2-CD3+CD4-CD8+ b. CD2-CD3-CD4+CD8- c. CD2+CD3+CD4-CD8- d. CD2-CD3-CD4+CD8-
d. Alpha and beta chains are unique for each antigen.
Which of the following best describes the T-cell receptor for antigen?
a. It consists of IgM and IgD molecules.
b. It is the same for all T cells.
c. It is present in the double-negative stage.
d. Alpha and beta chains are unique for each antigen.
c. Elimination of virally infected cells
A cell flow cytometry pattern belonging to a 3-year- old patient showed the following: normal CD4+ T-cell count, normal CD19+ B-cell count, low CD8+ T-cell count. Which type of immunity would be affected?
a. Production of antibody
b. Formation of plasma cells
c. Elimination of virally infected cells
d. Downregulation of the immune response
b. Ability to remember a prior exposure to a pathogen
Which of the following is a unique characteristic of adaptive immunity?
a. Ability to fight infection
b. Ability to remember a prior exposure to a pathogen
c. A similar response to all pathogens encountered
d. Process of phagocytosis to destroy a pathogen
a. Elimination of autoimmune responses
Clonal deletion of T cells as they mature is important in which of the following processes?
a. Elimination of autoimmune responses
b. Positive selection of CD3/TCR receptors
c. Allelic exclusion of chromosomes
d. Elimination of cells unable to bind to MHC
antigens
d. In lymph nodes
Where do germinal centers occur?
a. In the thymus
b. In the bone marrow
c. In peripheral blood
d. In lymph nodes
a. They occur on both the H and L chains.
Which of the following is characteristic of variable domains of immunoglobulins?
a. They occur on both the H and L chains.
b. They represent the complement-binding site.
c. They are at the carboxy-terminal ends of the molecules.
d. They are found only on H chains.
a. can cross the placenta.
All of the following are true of IgM except that it
a. can cross the placenta.
b. fixes complement.
c. has a J chain.
d. is a primary response antibody.
b. IgE has one more constant region than IgG.
How does the structure of IgE differ from that of IgG?
a. IgG has a secretory component and IgE does not.
b. IgE has one more constant region than IgG.
c. IgG has more antigen-binding sites than IgE.
d. IgG has more light chains than IgE.
d. 10
How many antigen-binding sites does a typical IgM molecule have?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 10
b. L chains
Bence Jones proteins are identical to which of the following?
a. H chains
b. L chains
c. IgM molecules
d. IgG molecules
c. one L chain and one-half of an H chain.
A Fab fragment consists of
a. two H chains.
b. two L chains.
c. one L chain and one-half of an H chain.
d. one L chain and an entire H chain.
a. IgA
Which antibody best protects mucosal surfaces?
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgD
d. IgM
d. IgG1m3 and IgG1m17
Which of the following pairs represents two different immunoglobulin allotypes?
a. IgM and IgG
b. IgM1 and IgM2
c. Anti-human IgM and anti-human IgG
d. IgG1m3 and IgG1m17
a. 2L and 2H chains
The structure of a typical immunoglobulin consists of which of the following?
a. 2L and 2H chains
b. 4L and 2H chains
c. 4L and 4H chains
d. 2L and 4Hchains
a. Kappa
Which of the following are L chains of antibody molecules?
a. Kappa
b. Gamma
c. Mu
d. Alpha
c. Immunodeficiency disorder
If the results of serum protein electrophoresis show a significant decrease in the gamma band, which of the following is a likely possibility?
a. Normal response to active infection
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Immunodeficiency disorder
d. Monoclonal gammopathy
b. the arrangement of disulfide bonds.
The subclasses of IgG differ mainly in
a. the type of L chain.
b. the arrangement of disulfide bonds.
c. the ability to act as opsonins.
d. molecular weight.
a. A transport mechanism across endothelial cells
Which best describes the role of the secretory component of IgA?
a. A transport mechanism across endothelial cells
b. A means of joining two IgA monomers together
c. An aid to trapping antigen
d. Enhancement of complement fixation by the classical pathway
c. Enhancing proliferation of B cells
Which represents the main function of IgD?
a. Protection of the mucous membranes
b. Removal of antigens by complement fixation
c. Enhancing proliferation of B cells
d. Destruction of parasitic worms
d. IgM
Which antibody is best at agglutination and complement fixation?
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgD
d. IgM
b. B cells are preprogrammed for specific antibody synthesis.
Which of the following can be attributed to the clonal selection hypothesis of antibody formation?
a. Plasma cells make generalized antibody.
b. B cells are preprogrammed for specific antibody synthesis.
c. Proteins can alter their shape to conform to antigen.
d. Cell receptors break off and become circulating antibody.
b. is heat stable.
All of the following are true of IgE except that it
a. fails to fix complement.
b. is heat stable.
c. attaches to tissue mast cells.
d. is found in the serum of allergic persons.
c. Four different regions are involved in coding of H chains.
Which best describes coding for immunoglobulin molecules?
a. All genes are located on the same chromosome.
b. L chain rearrangement occurs before H chain rearrangement.
c. Four different regions are involved in coding of H chains.
d. Lambda rearrangement occurs before kappa rearrangement.
b. Restricting the growth of myeloma cells
What is the purpose of HAT medium in the preparation of monoclonal antibody?
a. Fusion of the two cell types
b. Restricting the growth of myeloma cells
c. Restricting the growth of spleen cells
d. Restricting antibody production to the IgM class
d. 2 Fab and 1 Fc fragment
Papain digestion of an IgG molecule results in which of the following?
a. 2 Fab' and 1 Fc' fragment
b. F(ab')2 and 1 Fc' fragment
c. 2 Fab and 2 Fc fragments
d. 2 Fab and 1 Fc fragment
a. IgG
Which antibody provides protection to the growing fetus because it is able to cross the placenta?
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
c. There is a large increase in IgG but not IgM.
Which best characterizes the secondary response?
a. Equal amounts of IgM and IgG are produced.
b. There is an increase in IgM only.
c. There is a large increase in IgG but not IgM.
d. The lag phase is the same as in the primary
response.
b. pleiotropy.
The ability of a single cytokine to alter the expression of several genes is called
a. redundancy.
b. pleiotropy.
c. autocrine stimulation.
d. endocrine effect.
a. Mediation of the innate immune response
Which of the following effects can be attributed to IL-1?
a. Mediation of the innate immune response
b. Differentiation of stem cells
c. Halted growth of virally infected cells
d. Stimulation of mast cells
d. All of the above
Which of the following precursors are target cells for IL-3?
a. Myeloid precursors
b. Lymphoid precursors
c. Erythroid precursors
d. All of the above
d. Decreased eosinophil count
A lack of IL-4 may result in which of the following effects?
a. Inability to fight off viral infections
b. Increased risk of tumors
c. Lack of IgM
d. Decreased eosinophil count
c. IL-2
Which of the following cytokines is also known as the T-cell growth factor?
a. IFN-γ
b. IL-12
c. IL-2
d. IL-10
a. Increased IL-2 receptor expression by the Th cell producing it
Which of the following represents an autocrine effect of IL-2?
a. Increased IL-2 receptor expression by the Th cell producing it
b. Macrophages signaled to the area of antigen stimulation
c. Proliferation of antigen-stimulated B cells
d. Increased synthesis of acute-phase proteins
throughout the body
