BIOL 213 Final Exam Review- Liberty University

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210 Terms

1
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a cell that breaks down and recycles proteins would have large numbers of ________________.

proteasomes

2
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which type of cell has abundant mitochondria?

cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP)

3
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what is the removal of a tissue sample from patients via surgery or needle to diagnose disease?

biopsy

4
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the embryonic germ layer that is the source of connective tissue and muscle is ______________.

mesoderm

5
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which of the following sequences is correct?

transcription --> translation --> protein synthesis

6
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in hepatocellular carcinoma, usually more than 50% of the cells show prominent, multiple ____________. this is because they need many ribosomes for protein synthesis

nucleoli

7
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which statement is accurate?

a sequence of nucleotides in DNA constitutes a gene; DNA and associated proteins form chromatin

8
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which of the following shows the correct sequence of mitosis?

prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase

9
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to maintain a resting membrane potentials, the sodium-potassium pump

actively transports 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell

10
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which of the following could be used to study general features of cells?

light microscope

11
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which of the following is NOT a functions of carbohydrates int he body?

maintenance of plasma membrane fluidity

12
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which of the following is most consistent with homeostasis?

elevated blood glucose level cause insulin secretion, which in turn, causes cells to take up glucose

13
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with the subject in anatomical position, one can best see the dorsum of the hand from a (n) _____________ view

posterior

14
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proximal means

closer than another structure to the point of attachment to the trunk

15
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which of the following is most inferior in location?

pelvic cavity

16
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when a woman is giving birth, the head of the baby pushes against her cervix and stimulates the release of the hormone oxytocin. oxytocin travels in the blood and stimulates the uterus to contract. labor contractions become more and more intense until the baby is expelled. this is an example of ________________.

positive feedback

17
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if carbon dioxide levels rise int he body, negative feedback mechanisms will trigger

an increase in breathing so that carbon dioxide levels decline to the set point

18
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which is NOT a function of the integument?

these are all functions

19
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what type of epithelium is found in the epidermis

keratinized stratified squamous

20
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from deep to superficial, the order of the strata of the epidermis is

basale - spinosum - granulosum - lucidum - corneum

21
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the skins immune responsiveness will be diminished by a decrease in the number of epidermal ___________ cells

langerhans (dendritic)

22
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keratinocytes are

found throughout all epidermal strata

23
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the stratum ___________ is found only in thick skin, such as the skin covering the palms and soles

lucidum

24
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the function of melanin in the skin is to

protect against UV light

25
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which of the following is a component of the dermis?

these are all components

26
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the reticular layer of the dermis consists primarily of

dense irregular connective tissue

27
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why might someone become pale when they are exposed to a cold temperature?

vasoconstriction has occurred

28
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lines of cleavage are a result of

the orientation of collagen fibers in the dermis

29
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the structure responsible for pulling on the follicle and causing hair to stand on end is the

arrector pili muscle

30
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the hypodermis is rich in adipose, and thus its functions include

organ protection, energy storage, and thermal insulation

31
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nails are hard derivatives formed from the stratum ____________ of the epidermis

corneum

32
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production of this vitamin requires skin exposure to the sun. this vitamin is crucial for regulation of calcium and phosphate

vitamin D

33
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which of the following statements regarding hair is FALSE?

the growth rate of all types of hair is the same

34
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which of the following statements concerning sebaceous glands is false?

sebaceous glands are an example of apocrine glands

35
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what type of stimulus is detected by the sensory receptors of the skin?

all of these are correct

36
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the amount of body area involved with a burn is determined by the

rule of nines

37
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a slight sunburn is an example of a ___________ burn

first degree

38
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which of the following skin changes is usually associated with aging?

there is a decrease in collagen fibers

39
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which of the following is NOT a function of a bone?

sodium reabsorption

40
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ligaments attach

bone to bone

41
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which type of bone cell incorporates calcium and phosphate ions into bone tissue

osteoblast

42
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bone is __________ and contains mainly ___________ nerves

highly vascularized; sensory

43
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which of these is NOT part pf the skeletal system?

hypodermis

44
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the connective tissue sheath of most cartilage is called the

perichondrium

45
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the type of cartilage associated with bone function and development is

hyaline cartilage

46
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cartilage

contains chondrocytes located in lacunae

47
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which type of cell produces new bone tissue by secreting matrix?

osteoblasts

48
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bone cells called ___________ break down by secreting acid and enzymes that dissolve the matrix

osteoclasts

49
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during appositional growth of cartilage, the cells that produce the matrix are the

chondroblasts

50
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collagen and hydroxyapatite are the primary constituents of

bone matrix

51
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rickets is

a disease in children characterized by soft, bowed, and swollen bones

52
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it is possible to determine if a child's long bone is growing by examining a radiograph of the

epiphyseal plate

53
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what are the matrix rings of compact bone that surround the central canal of each osteon?

concentric lamellae

54
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in compact bone, ____________ connect adjacent lacunae, thereby providing pathways for nutrients and other materials to pass between osteocytes

canaliculi

55
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spongy bone tissue

contains interconnecting plates called trabeculae

56
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what would be the effect on bone growth of insufficient dietary calcium?

the matrix would be softer

57
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bob fractures the shaft of his humerus. therefore, the break is in the _________ of the bone

diaphysis

58
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bone growth at the articular cartilage is primarily responsible for increasing the size of

short bones

59
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when bone forms by intramembranous ossification, the ossification centers are within

mesenchyme

60
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endochondral ossification begins with a (n) ___________ model

hyaline cartilage

61
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which bones forms by intramembranous ossification?

parietal

62
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which of the following statements about bone remodeling and repair is correct?

exposure of a bone to increased mechanical stress can lead to bone remodeling

63
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the proper sequence of events in bone repair is

hematoma formation, callus formation, callus ossification, remodeling of bone

64
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when blood calcium levels are low

osteoclast activity increases

65
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in the kidneys, parathyroid hormone acts to ______________ production of calcitriol and ____________ reabsorption of calcium

increase; increase

66
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samantha has elevated blood calcium levels. which substance would you expect to find high levels in response to this condition?

calcitonin

67
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the term 'diarthrosis' refers to a joint that is

freely mobile

68
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the sagittal suture is a

fibrous joint

69
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the pubic symphysis is classified as a

cartilaginous joint and an amphiarthrosis

70
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of the four main tissue types, which tissue is the main component of the synovial membrane?

connective tissue

71
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which joint is multiaxial?

ball and socket

72
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a pivot joint

restricts movement to rotation

73
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an example of a saddle joint is the ___________ joint

carpometacarpal

74
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the type of movement between carpal bones is described as

gliding

75
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rotation of the forearm so as to direct the palm anteriorly (as in anatomical position) is called

supination

76
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a movement through 260 degrees that combines flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction is called

circumduction

77
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which of the following influence the range of motion of a joint?

all of these influence range of motion

78
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the muscles that hold the humeral head within the glenoid cavity are collectively called the

rotator cuff

79
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when the articulating surfaces of the bones are moved out of proper alignment, it is called

dislocation

80
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which movements allowed at the temporomandibular joint

depression and elevation

81
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the glenoid labrum is part of the __________ joint, while the acetabular labrum is part of the __________ joint

shoulder; hip

82
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which joints are responsible for flexion and extension at the elbow?

humeroulnar and humeroradial

83
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the anterior cruciate ligament prevents __________ displacement of the tibia

anterior

84
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the three arches of the foot

distribute the weight of the body during standing and walking

85
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jennifer has experienced pain in her left shoulder that is likely due to ligament damage. which of the following symptoms will most likely accompany the pain?

reduction of range of motion

86
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jane is a 54-year old woman who is active and rarely complains of joint issues. which of the following lifestyle choices did she most likely make to protect against joint pain as she aged

all of the choices are correct

87
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which of the following is NOT an effect of aging on the joints?

increased production of synovial fluid

88
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which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscle?

constriction of organs

89
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which of the following actions is caused by contraction of skeletal muscle?

moving your feet while walking

90
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smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are similar in that they both

are involuntary

91
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skeletal muscle fibers

are striated

92
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which type of muscle tissue is autorhythmic?

both cardiac and smooth muscle are correct

93
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in general, a skeletal muscle contains the following:

all of the above

94
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a fascicle

is surrounded by perimysium

95
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the membranous network that wraps around myofibrils and holds relatively high concentrations of calcium is known as the

sarcoplasmic reticulum

96
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a skeletal muscle cell contains hundreds to thousands of __________, which are complex organelles; they are cylindrical in shape and contain the protein filaments that cause contraction

myofibrils

97
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the active sites to which cross-bridges attache are found on the

actin myofilaments

98
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which of the following is NOT a property of the myosin head?

they bind to troponin

99
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the region of the sarcomere that contains both actin and myosin myofilaments is called the

A band

100
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a sarcomere is defined as the distance from one __________ to the next adjacent _____________. (the same answer fills both spaces)

Z disk