Microbiology 2460 Exam 2

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139 Terms

1
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The term prokaryotes refers to which of the following?
A. very small organisms
B. unicellular organisms that have no nucleus
C. multicellular organisms
D. cells that resemble animal cells more than plant cells.

B

2
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The term microbiota refers to which of the following?
a. all microorganisms of the same species
b. all of the microorganisms involved in a symbiotic relationship
c. all microorganisms in a certain region of the human body
d. all microorganisms in a certain geographic region

C

3
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Which of the following refers to the type of interaction between two prokaryotic populations in which one population benefits and the other is not affected?
a. mutualism
b. commensalism
c. parasitism
d. neutralism

B

4
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Which of the following describes Proteobacteria in domain Bacteria?
a. phylum
b. class
c. species
d. genus

A

5
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All Alphaproteobacteria are which of the following?
a. oligotrophs
b. intracellular
c. pathogenic
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

6
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Class Betaproteobacteria includes all but which of the following genera?
a. Neisseria.
b. Bordetella.
c. Leptothrix.
d. Campylobacter.

D

7
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Haemophilus influenzae is a common cause of which of the following?
a. influenza
b. dysentery
c. upper respiratory tract infections
d. hemophilia

C

8
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Which of the following is the organelle that spirochetes use to propel themselves?
a. plasma membrane
b. axial filament
c. pilum
d. fimbria

B

9
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Which of the following bacteria are the most prevalent in the human gut?
a. cyanobacteria
b. staphylococci
c. Borrelia
d. Bacteroides

D

10
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Which of the following refers to photosynthesis performed by bacteria with the use of water as the donor of electrons?
a. oxygenic
b. anoxygenic
c. heterotrophic
d. phototrophic

A

11
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Which of the following bacterial species is classified as high G+C gram-positive?
a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Bacillus anthracis
d. Streptococcus pneumoni

A

12
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The term "deeply branching" refers to which of the following?
a. the cellular shape of deeply branching bacteria
b. the position in the evolutionary tree of deeply branching bacteria
c. the ability of deeply branching bacteria to live in deep ocean waters
d. the pattern of growth in culture of deeply branching bacteria

B

13
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Which of these deeply branching bacteria is considered a polyextremophile?
a. Aquifex pyrophilus
b. Deinococcus radiodurans
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

B

14
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Archaea and Bacteria are most similar in terms of their ________.
a. genetics
b. cell wall structure
c. ecology
d. unicellular structure

D

15
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Which of the following is true of archaea that produce methane?
a. They reduce carbon dioxide in the presence of nitrogen.
b. They live in the most extreme environments.
c. They are always anaerobes. d. They have been discovered on Mars.

B

16
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Which genus includes the causative agent for malaria?
a. Euglena
b. Paramecium
c. Plasmodium
d. Trypanosoma

C

17
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Which protist is a concern because of its ability to contaminate water supplies and cause diarrheal illness?
a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Toxoplasma gondii
c. Giardia lamblia
d. Trichomonas vaginalis

C

18
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A fluke is classified within which of the following?
a. Nematoda
b. Rotifera
c. Platyhelminthes
d. Annelida

C

19
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A nonsegmented worm is found during a routine colonoscopy of an individual who reported having abdominal cramps, nausea, and vomiting. This worm is likely which of the following?
a. nematode
b. fluke
c. trematode
d. annelid

A

20
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A segmented worm has male and female reproductive organs in each segment. Some use hooks to attach to the intestinal wall. Which type of worm is this?
a. fluke
b. nematode
c. cestode
d. annelid

C

21
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Mushrooms are a type of which of the following?
a. conidia
b. ascus
c. polar tubule
d. basidiocarp

D

22
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Which of the following is the most common cause of human yeast infections?
a. Candida albicans
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Aspergillus fumigatus

A

23
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Which of the following is an ascomycete fungus associated with bat droppings that can cause a respiratory infection if inhaled?
a. Candida albicans
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Rhizopus stolonifera
d. Trichophyton rubrum

B

24
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Which polysaccharide found in red algal cell walls is a useful solidifying agent?
a. chitin
b. cellulose
c. phycoerythrin
d. agar

D

25
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Which is the term for the hard outer covering of some dinoflagellates?
a. theca
b. thallus
c. mycelium
d. shell

A

26
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Which protists are associated with red tides?
a. red algae
b. brown algae
c. dinoflagellates
d. green algae

C

27
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You encounter a lichen with leafy structures. Which term describes this lichen?
a. crustose
b. foliose
c. fruticose
d. agarose

B

28
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Which of the following is the term for the outer layer of a lichen?
a. the cortex
b. the medulla
c. the thallus
d. the theca

A

29
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The fungus in a lichen is which of the following?
a. a basidiomycete
b. an ascomycete
c. a zygomycete
d. an apicomplexan

B

30
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The component(s) of a virus that is/are extended from the envelope for attachment is/are the:
a. capsomeres
b. spikes
c. nucleic acid
d. viral whiskers

B

31
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Which of the following does a virus lack? Select all that apply. a. ribosomes
b. metabolic processes
c. nucleic acid
d. glycoprotein

A & B

32
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The envelope of a virus is derived from the host's
a. nucleic acids
b. membrane structures
c. cytoplasm
d. genome

B

33
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In naming viruses, the family name ends with ________ and genus name ends with _________. a. −virus; −viridae
b. −viridae; −virus
c. −virion; virus
d. −virus; virion

B

34
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What is another name for a nonenveloped virus?
a. enveloped virus
b. provirus
c. naked virus
d. latent virus

C

35
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Which of the following leads to the destruction of the host cells?
a. lysogenic cycle
b. lytic cycle
c. prophage
d. temperate phage

B

36
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A virus obtains its envelope during which of the following phases?
a. attachment
b. penetration
c. assembly
d. release

D

37
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Which of the following components is brought into a cell by HIV?
a. a DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
b. RNA polymerase
c. ribosome
d. reverse transcriptase

D

38
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A positive-strand RNA virus:
a. must first be converted to a mRNA before it can be translated.
b. can be used directly to translate viral proteins.
c. will be degraded by host enzymes.
d. is not recognized by host ribosomes

B

39
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What is the name for the transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to another bacterium by a phage?
a. transduction
b. penetration
c. excision
d. translation

A

40
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Which of the followings cannot be used to culture viruses?
a. tissue culture
b. liquid medium only
c. embryo
d. animal host

B

41
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Which of the following tests can be used to detect the presence of a specific virus?
a. EIA
b. RT-PCR
c. PCR
d. all of the above

D

42
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Which of the following is NOT a cytopathic effect?
a. transformation
b. cell fusion
c. mononucleated cell
d. inclusion bodies

C

43
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Which of these infectious agents do not have nucleic acid?
a. viroids
b. viruses
c. bacteria
d. prions

D

44
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Which of the following is true of prions?
a. They can be inactivated by boiling at 100 °C.
b. They contain a capsid.
c. They are a rogue form of protein, PrP.
d. They can be reliably inactivated by an autoclave

C

45
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Prokaryotes are ____ microorganisms who cells have no _____.

unicellular/nucleus

46
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Prokaryotes can be found everywhere on our planet, even in the most ________.

extreme environments

47
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Prokaryotes are very flexible ______, so they are able to adjust their _____ to the available neutral resources.

metabolically/ feeding

48
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Prokaryotes live in ______ that interact among themselves and with large organisms that they use as hosts.

communities

49
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The totality of forms of prokaryotes living on the human body is called the _______ ______, which varies between regions of the body and individuals, and changes over time.

human microbiome

50
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the totality of forms of prokaryotes living in a certain region of the body is called the ____ of this region.

microbiota.

51
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prokaryotes are classified into domains

Archea and Bacteria

52
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In recent years, the traditional approaches to classification of prokaryotes have been supplemented by approaches based on

molecular genetics

53
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_______ is a phylum of gram-negative bacteria discovered by Carl Woese in the 1980s bases on nucleotide sequence homology.

Proteobacteria

54
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Proteobacteria are further classified into the _____ alpha-, beta-, gamma-, delta-, and epsilonproteobacteria, each class having separate orders, families, genera, and species.

classes

55
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______ are _____.

Alphaproteobacteria/oligotrophs

56
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The taxa chlamydias and rickettsias are ______

obligate intracellular pathogens

57
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______ are _____

Bethaproteobacteria/eutrophs

58
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____________ are the largest and the most diverse group of proteobacteria and some are ____

gammaproteobacteria/enteric

59
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_____ make up a small group to reduce sulfate or elemental sulfur

deltaproteobactiera

60
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______ make up the smallest group of proteobactiera

epsilonproteobacteria

61
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gram negative nonproteobacteria include the taxa _____; the Cytophaga, Fusobacterium, Bacteroids group; Planctomycetes; and many representatives of ______ _____.

spirochetes; phototrophic bacteria.

62
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_____ are motile, spiral bacteria with a long, narrow body; they are difficult or impossible to culture

Spirochetes

63
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several genera of spirochetes contain human pathogens that cause such diseases as _____ and ____ diseases

syphilis and lyme disease

64
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____, _____, and ______ are classified together as a phylum called the ____ group

Cytophaga, Fusobacterium and Bacteroids/ CFB

65
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What is cytophaga?

Aquatic bacteria with the gliding motility

66
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What is fusobacteria?

inhabit the human mouth and may cause severe infectious diseases

67
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What is bacteriods?

present in vast numbers in the human gut, most of them being mutualistic but some are pathogenic

68
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_____ are aquatic bacteria that reproduce by budding; they may form large colonies, and develop a holdfast.

Phototrophic

69
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phototropic bacteria are not a taxon but, rather, a group categorized by their ability to use the energy of _____.

sunlight

70
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___ bacteria perform anoxygenic photosynthesis, using sulfur compounds as donors of electrons, whereas ____ bacteria use organic compounds as donors of electrons

sulfur/nonsulfur

71
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some phototrophic bacteria are able to fix ____, providing the usable forms of ____ to other organisms

nitrogen/nitrogen

72
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_____ are oxygen-producing bacteria thought to have played a critical role in the forming of the earth's atmosphere.

cyanobacteria

73
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_____ ____ ____ are a very large and diverse group microorganisms.

gram positive bacteria

74
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gram positive bacteria are classified into ___ based on the prevalence of guanine and cytosine in their genome

high G+C gram positive and low G+C gram positive bacteria

75
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actinobacteria is the ____ ____ of the class of high G+C

taxonomic name

76
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Actinomyces, Arthrobacter, Corynebacterium, Frankia, Gardnerella, Micrococcus, Mycobacterium, Nocardia, Propionibacterium

High G+C

77
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examples of high g+c

Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which causes tuberculosis; M. leprae, which causes leprosy (Hansen's disease); and Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which causes diphtheria.

78
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low g+c are generally obligate anaerobes and can form endospores, examples are :

C. perfringens (gas gangrene), C. tetani (tetanus), and C. botulinum (botulism).

79
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lactobacillales include

Enterococcus, Lactobacillus, Leuconostoc, and Streptococcus.

80
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Bacilli is a taxonomic class of ____ G+C gram positive bacteria.

low

81
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B.anthracis causes ____
C.cereus cases____
both are highly resistant to ____

anthrax/infections in GI tract
antibiotics

82
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Mycoplasma spp. are very small, ____ low g+c gram positive bacteria that lack cell walls.

pleomorphic

83
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____ ___ causes atypical pneumonia

M.pneumonia

84
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___ ____ _____ are photogenically the most ancient forms of life, being the closest to the last universal common ancestor

deeply branching bacteria

85
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deeply branching bacteria include many species that thrive in ____ ____ that are thought to resemble conditions on earth a million years ago

extreme conditions

86
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deeply branching bacteria are important for our understanding of ____

evolution

87
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____ are unicellular, prokaryotic microorganisms that differ from bacteria in their genetics, biochemistry, and ecology

Archea

88
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some archea are ____, living in environments with extremely high or low temperatures, or extreme salinity.

extremophiles

89
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___ are a diverse, ___ group of eukaryotic organisms

protists/polyphyletic

90
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___ may be unicellular or multicellular.

protists

91
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Protists vary in ____, morphology, method of locomotion, and mode of reproduction

nutrition

92
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important structures of protists include ___ ___, cilia, flagella, ____, and pseudopodia; some lack organelles such as mitochondria

contractile vacuoles/pellicles

93
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taxonomy of protists is changing rapidly as _____ are reassessed using newer techniques

relationships

94
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the protists include important ___ and ____

pathogens/parasites

95
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__ ___ are included within the study of microbiology because they are often identified by looking for microscopic __ and __

helminth parasites/ eggs and larvae

96
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the two major groups of helminths are

roundworms (nematoda) and flatworms (platyhelminthes)

97
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___ are common intestinal parasites often transmitted through undercooked food, although they are also found in other environments

nematodes

98
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platyhelminths include __ and __, which are often transmitted through undercooked meat.

tapeworms and fluke

99
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the ___ include diverse saprotrophic eukaryotic organisms within chitin cell walls.

fungi

100
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___ can be unicellular or multicellular; some like yeast and fungul spores are microscopic, whereas some are large

fungi