(ISC)2 Certified in Cybersecurity - Exam Prep

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Last updated 1:51 AM on 1/27/26
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598 Terms

1
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Document specific requirements that a customer has about any aspect of a vendor's service performance.

A) DLR

B) Contract

C) SLR

D) NDA

C) SLR (Service-Level Requirements)

2
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_________ identifies and triages risks.

Risk Assessment

3
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_________ are external forces that jeopardize security.

Threats

4
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_________ are methods used by attackers.

Threat Vectors

5
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_________ are the combination of a threat and a vulnerability.

Risks

6
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We rank risks by _________ and _________.

Likelihood and impact

7
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_________ use subjective ratings to evaluate risk likelihood and impact.

Qualitative Risk Assessment

8
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_________ use objective numeric ratings to evaluate risk likelihood and impact.

Quantitative Risk Assessment

9
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_________ analyzes and implements possible responses to control risk.

Risk Treatment

10
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_________ changes business practices to make a risk irrelevant.

Risk Avoidance

11
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_________ reduces the likelihood or impact of a risk.

Risk Mitigation

12
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An organization's _________ is the set of risks that it faces.

Risk Profile

13
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_________ Initial Risk of an organization.

Inherent Risk

14
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_________ Risk that remains in an organization after controls.

Residual Risk

15
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_________ is the level of risk an organization is willing to accept.

Risk Tolerance

16
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_________ reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk and help identify issues.

Security Controls

17
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_________ stop a security issue from occurring.

Preventive Control

18
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_________ identify security issues requiring investigation.

Detective Control

19
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_________ remediate security issues that have occurred.

Recovery Control

20
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Hardening == Preventative

Virus == Detective

21
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Backups == Recovery

For exam (Local and Technical Controls are the same)

22
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_________ use technology to achieve control objectives.

Technical Controls

23
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_________ use processes to achieve control objectives.

Administrative Controls

24
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_________ impact the physical world.

Physical Controls

25
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_________ tracks specific device settings.

Configuration Management

26
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_________ provide a configuration snapshot.

Baselines (track changes)

27
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_________ assigns numbers to each version.

Versioning

28
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_________ serve as important configuration artifacts.

Diagrams

29
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_________ and _________ help ensure a stable operating environment.

Change and Configuration Management

30
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Purchasing an insurance policy is an example of which risk management strategy?

Risk Transference

31
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What two factors are used to evaluate a risk?

Likelihood and Impact

32
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What term best describes making a snapshot of a system or application at a point in time for later comparison?

Baselining

33
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What type of security control is designed to stop a security issue from occurring in the first place?

Preventive

34
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What term describes risks that originate inside the organization?

Internal

35
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What four items belong to the security policy framework?

Policies, Standards, Guidelines, Procedures

36
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_________ describe an organization's security expectations.

Policies (mandatory and approved at the highest level of an organization)

37
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_________ describe specific security controls and are often derived from policies.

Standards (mandatory)

38
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_________ describe best practices.

Guidelines (recommendations/advice and compliance is not mandatory)

39
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_________ step-by-step instructions.

Procedures (not mandatory)

40
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_________ describe authorized uses of technology.

Acceptable Use Policies (AUP)

41
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_________ describe how to protect sensitive information.

Data Handling Policies

42
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_________ cover password security practices.

Password Policies

43
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_________ cover use of personal devices with company information.

Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) Policies

44
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_________ cover the use of personally identifiable information.

Privacy Policies

45
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_________ cover the documentation, approval, and rollback of technology changes.

Change Management Policies

46
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Which element of the security policy framework includes suggestions that are not mandatory?

Guidelines

47
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What law applies to the use of personal information belonging to European Union residents?

GDPR

48
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What type of security policy normally describes how users may access business information with their own devices?

BYOD Policy

49
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_________ the set of controls designed to keep a business running in the face of adversity, whether natural or man-made.

Business Continuity Planning (BCP)

50
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BCP is also known as _________.

Continuity of Operations Planning (COOP)

51
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Defining the BCP Scope:

What business activities will the plan cover? What systems will it cover? What controls will it consider?

52
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_________ identifies and prioritizes risks.

Business Impact Assessment

53
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BCP in the cloud requires _________ between providers and customers.

Collaboration

54
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_________ protects against the failure of a single component.

Redundancy

55
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_________ identifies and removes SPOFs.

Single Point of Failure Analysis

56
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_________ continues until the cost of addressing risks outweighs the benefit.

SPOF Analysis

57
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_________ uses multiple systems to protect against service failure.

High Availability

58
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_________ makes a single system resilient against technical failures.

Fault Tolerance

59
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_________ spreads demand across systems.

Load Balancing

60
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3 Common Points of Failure in a system.

Power Supply, Storage Media, Networking

61
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Disk Mirroring is which RAID level?

1

62
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Disk striping with parity is which RAID level?

5 (uses 3 or more disks to store data)

63
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What goal of security is enhanced by a strong business continuity program?

Availability

64
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What is the minimum number of disk required to perform RAID level 5?

3

65
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What type of control are we using if we supplement a single firewall with a second standby firewall ready to assume responsibility if the primary firewall fails?

High Availability

66
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_________ provide structure during cybersecurity incidents.

Incident Response Plan

67
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_________ describe the policies and procedures governing cybersecurity incidents.

Incident Response Plans

68
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_________ leads to strong incident response.

Prior Planning

69
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Incident Response Plans should include:

Statement of Purpose, Strategies and goals for incident response, Approach to incident response, Communication with other groups, Senior leadership approval

70
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_________ should be consulted when developing a plan.

NIST SP 800-61

71
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Incident response teams must have personnel available _________.

24/7

72
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_________ is crucial to effective incident identification.

Monitoring

73
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_________ security solution that collects information from diverse sources, analyzes it for signs for security incidents and retains it for later use.

Security Incident and Event Management (SIEM)

74
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The highest priority of a first responder must be containing damage through _________.

Isolation

75
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During an incident response, what is the highest priority of first responders?

Containing the damage

76
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You are normally required to report security incidents to law enforcement if you believe a law may have been violated. True or False

False

77
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_________ restores normal operations as quickly as possible.

Disaster Recovery

78
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What are the initial response goals regarding Disaster Recovery?

Contain the Damage, Recover normal operations

79
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_________ is the amount of time to restore service.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

80
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_________ is the amount of data to recover.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

81
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_________ is the percentage of service to restore.

Recovery Service Level (RSL)

82
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_________ provide a data "safety net"

Backups

83
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Types of Backup Media:

Tape backups, Disk-to-disk backups, Cloud backups

84
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_________ include a complete copy of all data.

Full Backups

85
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_________ are types of full backups.

Snapshots and Images

86
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_________ include all data modified since the last full backup.

Differential Backups

87
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_________ include all data modified since the last full or incremental backup.

Incremental Backups

88
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Joe performs full backups every Sunday evening and differential backups every weekday evening. His system fails on Friday morning. What backups does he restore?

Sunday's FULL backup (To establish a base), Thursday's differential backup (To grab the latest data change)

89
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Joe performs full backups every Sunday evening and incremental backups every weekday evening. His system fails on Friday morning. What backups does he restore?

Sunday's FULL backup (To establish a base), Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday incremental backups

90
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_________ provide alternate data processing.

Disaster Recovery Sites

91
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Disaster Recovery Facility Sites:

Hot Site, Cold Site, Warm Site

92
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_________ fully operational data centers stock with equipment an data and are available at a moment's notice. Very expensive.

Hot Site

93
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_________ empty data centers stock with core equipment, network, and environmental controls but do not have servers. Relatively Inexpensive but can take weeks or even months to become operational.

Colt Site

94
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_________ stock with all necessary equipment and data but are not maintained in a parallel fashion. Similar in expense to hot sites and can become operational in hours or days.

Warm Site

95
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_________ these are geographically distant, offer site resiliency, require manual transfer or site replication through SAN or VM and provide online or offline backups.

Offsite Storage

96
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Disaster Recovery Testing Goals:

Validate that the plan functions correctly, Identify necessary plan updates

97
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Disaster Recovery Test types:

Read-through, Walk-through, Simulation, Parallel Test, Full interruption test

98
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_________ ask each team member to review their role in the disaster recovery process and provide feedback.

Read-throughs

99
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_________ gather the team together for a formal review of the disaster recovery plan.

Walk-throughs (aka Tabletop exercise)

100
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_________ use a practice scenario to test the disaster recovery plan.

Simulations