Phlebotomy Final Exam Review

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Flashcards generated from phlebotomy lecture notes covering key concepts, definitions, techniques, and safety protocols relevant to the field.

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124 Terms

1
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What term is used to describe a microorganism that does NOT produce disease?

A) Pathogen
B) Opportunistic pathogen
C) Nonpathogen
D) Virulent organism

C) Nonpathogen

2
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When labeling a blood collection tube, how many unique patient identifiers are typically required?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

B) 2

3
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Which major component found within red blood cells is responsible for transporting oxygen to the body's tissue cells?

A) Plasma
B) Platelets
C) Hemoglobin
D) White blood cells

C) Hemoglobin

4
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What is the correct term for a chemical agent that is used to kill disease-producing microorganisms on inanimate objects, but not necessarily spores?

A) Antiseptic
B) Sterilant
C) Disinfectant
D) Sanitizer

C) Disinfectant

5
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The presence of which substance in urine is associated with a distinct fruity odor, often indicating metabolic issues like uncontrolled diabetes?

A) Glucose
B) Protein
C) Bilirubin
D) Ketones

D) Ketones

6
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Which of the following conditions is NOT typically associated with an increase in red blood cell (RBC) count, but rather affects white blood cells?

A) Polycythemia
B) High altitude exposure
C) Dehydration
D) Leukemia

D) Leukemia

7
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Which of the following actions represents an error in technique when obtaining a capillary blood specimen from a patient?

A) Warming the site before puncture
B) Wiping away the first drop of blood
C) Applying gentle pressure to the site
D) Using the first drop of blood for the test

D) Using the first drop of blood for the test

8
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Which hormone is unique to pregnancy and is found in the urine and blood of a pregnant woman, serving as the basis for pregnancy tests?

A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
D) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

D) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

9
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What is the normal specific gravity range for urine, indicating its concentration relative to water?

A) 1.000 to 1.010
B) 1.030 to 1.050
C) 1.005 to 1.030
D) 0.995 to 1.005

C) 1.005 to 1.030

10
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What does the term 'sterile' imply an article is completely free of?

A) Pathogenic bacteria only
B) Viruses and fungi only
C) All living microorganisms, including spores
D) All visible dirt and debris

C) All living microorganisms, including spores

11
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When an intramuscular injection is administered in the upper outer quadrant of the buttock, which muscle is primarily targeted?

A) Deltoid muscle
B) Vastus lateralis muscle
C) Gluteal muscle
D) Dorsogluteal muscle

C) Gluteal muscle

12
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What is the maximum recommended time a tourniquet should be left on a patient's arm during venipuncture to prevent complications like hemoconcentration or hemolysis?

A) 30 seconds
B) 60 seconds
C) 90 seconds
D) 120 seconds

B) 60 seconds

13
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If glucose is detected in a patient's urine (glycosuria), which condition is most likely undiagnosed or poorly controlled, especially if accompanied by other symptoms?

A) Kidney stones
B) Urinary tract infection
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Liver disease

C) Diabetes mellitus

14
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Ammonia, which can cause a strong odor in urine, is produced by bacteria breaking down which substance?

A) Glucose
B) Protein
C) Urea
D) Ketones

C) Urea

15
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What is the classification for a microorganism that requires the presence of oxygen to survive and reproduce?

A) Anaerobe
B) Facultative anaerobe
C) Microaerophile
D) Aerobe

D) Aerobe

16
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According to general guidelines for individuals with diabetes, what is the recommended target A1c (glycated hemoglobin) level?

A) Less than 5\%
B) Less than 6\%
C) Less than 7\%
D) Less than 8\%

C) Less than 7\%

17
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During venipuncture, which type of vein is considered most prone to collapse, especially when using a strong vacuum or large needle?

A) Large, superficial veins
B) Deep, muscular veins
C) Small veins
D) Sclerosed veins

C) Small veins

18
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When an anticoagulated blood specimen is allowed to stand or is centrifuged, into what three main components does it typically separate?

A) Serum, clot, and buffy coat
B) Plasma, buffy coat, and red blood cells (RBCs)
C) Water, proteins, and cells
D) Lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins

B) Plasma, buffy coat, and red blood cells (RBCs)

19
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What is the primary function of the anticoagulant medication warfarin (Coumadin)?

A) To increase blood pressure
B) To reduce inflammation
C) To inhibit the formation of blood clots
D) To lower blood sugar

C) To inhibit the formation of blood clots

20
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What is the recommended angle of insertion for a 5/8 inch needle during a subcutaneous injection?

A) 15 degrees
B) 30 degrees
C) 45 degrees
D) 90 degrees

C) 45 degrees

21
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In a healthcare setting, what is considered the most common and likely means of occupational transmission for Hepatitis B virus (HBV)?

A) Airborne transmission
B) Contact with contaminated surfaces
C) Needlesticks and blood splashes
D) Fecal-oral route

C) Needlesticks and blood splashes

22
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Uncontrolled diabetes, starvation, or a high-fat diet can lead to an increase of ketone bodies in the urine, a condition known as what?

A) Glycosuria
B) Proteinuria
C) Ketonuria
D) Hematuria

C) Ketonuria

23
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For which blood substance, when its concentration exceeds a certain level, is the renal threshold exceeded, causing it to appear in the urine?

A) Protein
B) Bilirubin
C) Glucose
D) Creatinine

C) Glucose

24
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What is the primary nitrogenous waste product and end product of protein metabolism, which is excreted in urine?

A) Creatinine
B) Uric acid
C) Urea
D) Ammonia

C) Urea

25
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Which of the following is NOT a standard component typically measured as part of a Complete Blood Count (CBC) test?

A) Red Blood Sell Count (RBC)
B) White Blood Cell Count (WBC)
C) Platelet Count
D) Immunoglobin

D) Immunoglobin

26
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According to OSHA, which of the following is NOT generally classified as an Other Potentially Infectious Material (OPIM), unless visibly contaminated with blood?

A) Semen
B) Vaginal secretions
C) Tears and sweat
D) Cerebrospinal fluid

C) Tears and sweat (unless visibly contaminated with blood)

27
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What is a key characteristic of a first-voided morning urine specimen that makes it ideal for many diagnostic tests, such as pregnancy tests or microscopic examinations?

A) It is always free of bacteria.
B) It has the lowest concentration of dissolved substances.
C) It has the greatest concentration of dissolved substances.
D) It is always alkaline.

C) It has the greatest concentration of dissolved substances.

28
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If a healthcare worker sustains a cut on their bare hand that comes into contact with a patient's blood, what is the immediate first step they should take, according to safety protocols?

A) Apply a bandage to the cut.
B) Report the incident to a supervisor immediately.
C) Squeeze the wound to make it bleed more.
D) Immediately wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water.

D) Immediately wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water

29
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Which technique is most effective in preventing a vein from rolling during venipuncture, ensuring a stable target for needle insertion?

A) Using a very small gauge needle
B) Applying a tourniquet very tightly
C) Asking the patient to pump their fist repeatedly
D) Applying firm pressure below and to the side of the vein

D) Applying firm pressure below and to the side of the vein

30
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According to federal regulations for controlled substances, when does a prescription for a Schedule III drug typically expire?

A) 30 days from the date of issue
B) 3 months from the date of issue
C) 6 months from the date of issue
D) 1 year from the date of issue

C) 6 months from the date of issue

31
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What is the primary accomplishment of the sanitization process in medical asepsis, especially before disinfection or sterilization?

A) All microorganisms and spores are killed.
B) Organic matter is removed from the article.
C) High-level disinfection of the article takes place.
D) The article is made sterile and ready for use.

B) Organic matter is removed from the article.

32
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Which type of urine specimen is generally considered best for quantitative analysis, such as determining the total excretion of substances over a full day to help find the cause of kidney stone formation?

A) First-voided morning specimen
B) Clean-catch midstream specimen
C) Random urine specimen
D) 24-hour urine specimen

D) 24-hour urine specimen

33
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Which crucial hormone, responsible for regulating blood glucose levels, is produced by the beta-cells within the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas?

A) Glucagon
B) Somatostatin
C) Insulin
D) Amylase

C) Insulin

34
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Which of the following items is a common example of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) used in healthcare settings to protect against exposure to infectious materials?

A) Uniform scrubs without a gown
B) Patient chart
C) Clean disposable gloves
D) Hand sanitizer

C) Clean disposable gloves

35
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According to the CDC, when is it critically important to wash hands with soap and water, rather than relying solely on alcohol-based hand rub?

A) Before every patient contact
B) Before putting on gloves
C) When the hands are visibly soiled
D) After removing gloves

C) When the hands are visibly soiled

36
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Before performing a venipuncture, what is the most appropriate and crucial method for properly identifying a conscious and capable patient?

A) Ask the patient to state their last name only.
B) Ask the patient to state his or her full name and date of birth (DOB).
C) Check the patient's room number against the requisition form.
D) Verify the patient's name by only asking "Are you [Patient Name]?"

B) Ask the patient to state his or her full name and DOB

37
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If a medical office employee decides to decline the hepatitis B vaccine, what is a mandatory step they must take according to OSHA regulations?

A) Provide a doctor's note for exemption.
B) Sign a hepatitis B waiver form.
C) Wear a special badge indicating their unvaccinated status.
D) Pay for the vaccine themselves.

B) Sign a hepatitis B waiver form.

38
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What complication may occur during venipuncture if the needle is inserted at an angle of less than 15 degrees to the skin surface?

A) The needle may go through the vein completely.
B) The needle may enter the skin above the vein and not puncture it.
C) A hematoma is guaranteed to form.
D) The blood flow will be excessively fast.

B) The needle may enter the skin above the vein and not puncture it.

39
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To ensure accurate macroscopic and microscopic results, within what timeframe should a collected urine specimen ideally be examined after collection, or properly preserved if delayed?

A) 15 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 1 hour
D) 2 hours

C) 1 hour

40
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In the respiratory tract, how do cilia contribute to the body's defense mechanism by removing inhaled pathogens and foreign particles?

A) By absorbing them into the bloodstream.
B) By constantly beating toward the outside, propelling mucus and trapped particles.
C) By producing antibodies against them.
D) By engulfing them like phagocytes.

B) By constantly beating toward the outside

41
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Which medical asepsis process involves the use of chemical solutions to destroy many pathogenic microorganisms on surfaces and instruments, but not typically spores?

A) Sanitization
B) Sterilization
C) Disinfection
D) Antisepsis

C) Disinfection

42
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According to the American Diabetes Association, a fasting blood glucose level above what value (in mg/dL) on two separate occasions indicates a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?

A) 100 mg/dL
B) 110 mg/dL
C) 126 mg/dL
D) 140 mg/dL

C) 126 mg/dL

43
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What are the most common temperature and pressure settings typically used for sterilization by autoclaving in a medical office?

A) 212 °F at 10 psi
B) 250 °F at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch
C) 270 °F at 30 psi
D) 320 °F at 20 psi

B) 250 °F at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch

44
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What term describes the state of dynamic equilibrium within the body, where internal conditions remain relatively stable and body systems are functioning normally?

A) Pathogenesis
B) Homeostasis
C) Allostasis
D) Metabolism

B) Homeostasis

45
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What is the primary function of hemoglobin, the protein found in red blood cells?

A) To clot blood
B) To fight infection
C) To transport oxygen to the body's tissues
D) To produce antibodies

C) To transport oxygen in the body.

46
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Which vital organ is primarily affected and inflamed in acute viral hepatitis diseases, such as Hepatitis A, B, and C?

A) Spleen
B) Kidneys
C) Pancreas
D) Liver

D) Liver

47
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During venipuncture, what adverse event may occur if the needle is removed from the patient's arm before the tourniquet is released?

A) The vein may collapse.
B) Blood may spurt out and a hematoma may form around the puncture site.
C) The patient may faint due to sudden pressure change.
D) The blood sample will hemolyze.

B) Bleeding may occur around the puncture site.

48
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An increase in pH, the presence of nitrites, and an elevated leukocyte count (white blood cells) in a urine specimen are strong indicators of what clinical condition?

A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Kidney stones
C) Urinary Tract Infection (UTI)
D) Liver disease

C) Urinary Tract Infection (UTI)

49
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What is considered the optimal temperature for the majority of pathogenic microorganisms to grow and reproduce in the human body?

A) 72 °F (22 °C)
B) 98.6 °F (37 °C)
C) 102 °F (39 °C)
D) 0 °F (-18 °C)

B) 98.6 °F (37 °C)

50
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Which unique identifier is assigned to each specimen upon receipt in the laboratory to ensure proper tracking and record-keeping throughout the testing process?

A) Patient's Social Security Number
B) Room number
C) Accession number
D) Physician's order number

C) Accession number

51
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Which of the following actions is considered an error in technique when handling evacuated tubes that contain an anticoagulant after drawing blood, potentially leading to hemolysis or inaccurate results?

A) Gently inverting the tube 5-8 times
B) Shaking vigorously tubes containing anticoagulant after drawing it
C) Placing the tube immediately in a rack after inversion
D) Checking the expiration date before use

B) Shaking vigorously tubes containing anticoagulant after drawing it

52
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What is the typical immunization schedule for the hepatitis B vaccine, commonly consisting of three doses?

A) 0, 1 week, 1 month
B) 0, 1 month, 6 months
C) 0, 3 months, 6 months
D) 0, 6 months, 12 months

B) 0, 1 month, 6 months

53
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In the human body, what is the primary storage form of glucose, mainly found in the liver and muscles?

A) Starch
B) Cellulose
C) Glycogen
D) Fructose

C) Glycogen

54
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Which of the following conditions can lead to an increase in hemoglobin levels, often as a compensatory mechanism due to reduced oxygen availability or increased red blood cell production?

A) Anemia and acute blood loss
B) Polycythemia, Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD), and Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)
C) Kidney disease and malnutrition
D) Hyperthyroidism and iron deficiency

B) Polycythemia, Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD), and Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

55
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What is currently recognized as the most common means of transmission for Hepatitis C virus (HCV) in the United States and globally?

A) Sexual contact
B) Sharing needles for illegal injection drug use
C) Contaminated food or water
D) Mother-to-child transmission during birth

B) Sharing needles for illegal injection drug use

56
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For intramuscular injections in children, from what age is the gluteal muscle (specifically the dorsogluteal or ventrogluteal site) generally considered safe to use, due to adequate muscle development and reduced risk of sciatic nerve damage?

A) Birth to 1 year
B) 1 to 3 years of age
C) 4 years of age and older
D) Only in adults

C) 4 years of age and older

57
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When preparing and administering medication, healthcare professionals adhere to several 'rights' to ensure patient safety. Which of the following is NOT typically considered one of these fundamental 'rights'?

A) Right patient
B) Right medication
C) Right environment
D) Right dose

C) Right environment

58
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Which of the following biological entities, while being infectious agents, is NOT classified as a microorganism because it lacks nucleic acids and is composed solely of misfolded proteins?

A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Protozoa
D) Prions

D) Prions

59
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Which of the following measurements is typically NOT included as a primary component of a standard lipid profile blood test?

A) Total Cholesterol
B) High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL) Cholesterol
C) Triglycerides
D) Glucose

D) Glucose

60
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In medical terminology, what does the abbreviation NPO stand for, indicating a critical instruction for a patient's care?

A) No physical activity today
B) Next patient order
C) Nothing by mouth
D) Note previous observation

C) Nothing by mouth

61
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Thanks to sensitive pregnancy tests detecting the rising levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), how early can pregnancy potentially be detected?

A) On the day of the missed period
B) As early as 6 days before the first missed period
C) 1 week after conception
D) 2 weeks after conception

B) As early as 6 days before the first missed period.

62
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Which patient demographic is the vastus lateralis muscle site most commonly preferred for administering intramuscular medications, due to its well-developed muscle and distance from major nerves and blood vessels?

A) Elderly patients
B) Obese adults
C) Infants and young children
D) Patients requiring deep sedation

C) Infants and young children

63
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Which color top evacuated tube, containing sodium citrate as an anticoagulant, is specifically used to collect blood specimens for Coagulation studies, such as Prothrombin Time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR) testing?

A) Red
B) Lavender
C) Light blue
D) Green

C) Light blue

64
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What is the primary purpose of applying a tourniquet during venipuncture procedures?

A) To prevent blood from clotting in the vein.
B) To minimize patient discomfort.
C) To make the patient's veins more visible and easier to palpate.
D) To reduce the risk of infection.

C) To make the patient's veins more visible and easier to palpate

65
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What is the chemical name for the common household disinfectant, bleach, which is often used in diluted form in healthcare settings?

A) Hydrogen peroxide
B) Isopropyl alcohol
C) Sodium hypochlorite
D) Chlorhexidine

C) Sodium hypochlorite

66
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Which of the following sites is considered appropriate for performing a skin puncture (capillary blood collection) on an adult?

A) The arch of the foot
B) The medial part of the thumb
C) The lateral part of the third fingertip
D) The earlobe

C) Lateral part of the third fingertip

67
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Which of the following common laboratory tests typically requires the patient to fast (abstain from food and drinks, except water) for a specified period before blood collection?

A) Complete Blood Count (CBC)
B) Electrolyte panel
C) FBG (Fasting Blood Glucose)
D) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

C) FBG (Fasting Blood Glucose)

68
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What accurately describes the procedure for a 2-hour postprandial glucose test?

A) A blood specimen is collected immediately after the patient wakes up.
B) A blood specimen is collected 2 hours after the patient consumes a specific amount of glucose.
C) The patient fasts for 2 hours before blood collection.
D) Multiple blood specimens are collected over a 2-hour period after an insulin injection.

B) A blood specimen is collected 2 hours after the patient consumes a specific amount of glucose.

69
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Which yellowish substance, a waste product, is produced when red blood cells are broken down and hemoglobin is metabolized, often indicating liver or red blood cell disorders if elevated?

A) Urea
B) Creatinine
C) Bilirubin
D) Uric acid

C) Bilirubin

70
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A foul-smelling odor in urine, distinct from its normal aromatic scent, is often indicative of the presence and activity of what?

A) Ketones
B) Glucose
C) Bacteria
D) Bilirubin

C) Bacteria

71
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If a patient presents with urine described as having a 'fruity' odor, what substance would most likely be detected as positive during a chemical analysis of the urine specimen?

A) Glucose
B) Protein
C) Ketones
D) Blood

C) Ketones

72
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Urea, a common waste product excreted in urine, is primarily the end product of the metabolism of which macronutrient?

A) Carbohydrate
B) Fat
C) Protein
D) Nucleic acid

C) Protein

73
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Under which specific circumstance might the presence of blood in a female patient's urine specimen be considered a 'normal' or expected, non-pathological finding due to external contamination?

A) During intense exercise
B) During menstruation
C) After consuming certain foods
D) In the morning after waking up

B) During menstruation

74
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What is the medical term for the condition characterized by the need to urinate more often than usual, especially at short intervals?

A) Dysuria
B) Urgency
C) Nocturia
D) Frequency

D) Frequency

75
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In a centrifuged blood sample, the buffy coat, a thin, whitish layer found between the plasma and red blood cells, primarily consists of which components?

A) Red blood cells and plasma proteins
B) White blood cells and platelets
C) Lipids and glucose
D) Antibodies and hormones

B) White blood cells and platelets

76
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What is the most critical and immediate treatment for a severe anaphylactic reaction, which can rapidly become life-threatening?

A) Antihistamines
B) Oral corticosteroids
C) IV fluids
D) Epinephrine injection

D) Epinephrine injection

77
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What is the correct angle of needle insertion recommended for administering an intramuscular (IM) injection to ensure the medication reaches the muscle tissue effectively?

A) 15 degrees
B) 30 degrees
C) 45 degrees
D) 90 degrees

D) 90 degrees

78
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For infants, which specific sites are recommended for performing a capillary puncture (heel stick) to obtain a blood specimen, avoiding nerve and bone damage?

A) The tip of the big toe
B) The sole of the foot's arch
C) The medial and lateral sides of the heel
D) The central plantar surface of the heel

C) Medial and lateral sides of the heel

79
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Which essential simple sugar is the primary end product of carbohydrate metabolism and serves as the body's main source of energy?

A) Fructose
B) Lactose
C) Glucose
D) Galactose

C) Glucose

80
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What is the medical term for the sudden, compelling need to urinate that is difficult to postpone, often associated with bladder irritation?

A) Frequency
B) Dysuria
C) Urgency
D) Nocturia

C) Urgency

81
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Which type of urine specimen, when collected properly, will typically exhibit a slightly aromatic odor due to the presence of volatile aromatic compounds?

A) Dehydrated specimen
B) Stale specimen left at room temperature
C) Specimen with a bacterial infection
D) Freshly voided specimen

D) Freshly voided specimen

82
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Which of the following common injection sites is NOT typically used for an intradermal (ID) injection, which involves injecting fluid just beneath the epidermis?

A) Forearm (anterior side)
B) Upper back
C) Deltoid
D) Upper part of the chest

C) Deltoid

83
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How is the medical condition 'dysuria' most accurately defined?

A) Increased frequency of urination
B) Excessive urine production
C) Painful or difficult urination
D) Involuntary leakage of urine

C) Painful or difficult urination

84
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A standard glass evacuated tube with a red stopper is generally used for collecting blood samples when what additive is NOT required?

A) Contains EDTA
B) Contains a clot activator
C) No additive (plain tube)
D) Contains sodium citrate

C) No additive

85
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Which specific type of urine specimen is generally preferred for detecting pregnancy, as it offers the highest concentration of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?

A) Random urine specimen
B) Clean-catch midstream specimen
C) First-voided morning specimen
D) 24-hour urine specimen

C) First-voided morning specimen

86
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What is considered the ultimate and most thorough form of medical asepsis, which effectively destroys all living microorganisms AND their spores?

A) Sanitization
B) Disinfection
C) Antisepsis
D) Sterilization

D) Sterilization

87
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How is serum, the liquid portion of blood after clotting, typically obtained from a blood specimen in a laboratory setting?

A) From whole blood that has been mixed with an anticoagulant.
B) From clotted blood that has been centrifuged.
C) By filtering plasma through a fine mesh.
D) By allowing an anticoagulated specimen to stand overnight.

B) From clotted blood that has been centrifuged

88
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The pH of urine can vary, but what is the typical pH characteristic of most urine specimens in healthy individuals?

A) Strongly alkaline
B) Neutral
C) Acidic
D) Highly variable and unpredictable

C) Acidic

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After collecting blood in a 'tiger-top' tube (SST tube with gel separator and clot activator), how long should it typically stand upright at room temperature to allow for proper clot formation before centrifugation?

A) 5 to 10 minutes
B) 15 to 20 minutes
C) 30 to 45 minutes
D) 60 to 90 minutes

C) 30 to 45 minutes

90
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Which of the following blood laboratory tests is commonly measured to assess kidney function, specifically identifying the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood, an end product of protein metabolism?

A) Glucose
B) Hemoglobin A1c
C) Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
D) C-reactive protein

C) Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)

91
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When preparing for venipuncture, how far above the antecubital fossa (bend of the elbow) should the tourniquet be applied to achieve adequate venous distention without causing excessive discomfort or hemoconcentration?

A) 1 to 2 inches
B) 3 to 4 inches
C) 5 to 6 inches
D) 7 to 8 inches

B) 3 to 4 inches

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Which urine test specifically measures the kidney's ability to concentrate or dilute urine, reflecting its density compared to distilled water?

A) pH test
B) Glucose test
C) Protein test
D) Specific gravity

D) Specific gravity

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To prevent venous reflux (the backflow of blood from the evacuated tube into the patient's vein) during venipuncture with the vacuum tube method, what technique should be employed?

A) Engaging the safety device immediately after needle withdrawal.
B) Keeping the patient's arm in a downward position.
C) Using a smaller needle gauge.
D) Applying the tourniquet for less than 30 seconds.

B) Keeping the patient's arm in a downward position

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What is the medical term used to describe a significantly small or decreased urine volume produced over a 24-hour period, often indicating renal impairment or dehydration?

A) Anuria
B) Polyuria
C) Nocturia
D) Oliguria

D) Oliguria

95
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Which part of the urinary system, due to its proximity to the external environment, normally harbors a diverse microbial flora and is not considered sterile?

A) Ureters
B) Bladder
C) Kidneys
D) Urinary meatus

D) Urinary meatus

96
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In healthcare and occupational safety, what does the acronym MSDS stand for, referring to a document that provides information on hazardous chemicals?

A) Medical System Documentation Standard
B) Material Safety Data Sheet
C) Microbiological Sample Distribution System
D) Medical Supply Disposal System

B) Material Safety Data Sheet

97
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Which of the following accurately represents the equivalent value for a cubic centimeter (cc) in terms of liquid volume, commonly used in medication dosages?

A) 1 cc = 1 L
B) 1 cc = 10 mL
C) 1 cc = 1 mL
D) 1 cc = 0.1 mL

C) 1 cc = 1 mL

98
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For most routine blood chemistry tests, which type of blood specimen is typically required, obtained from clotted blood after centrifugation?

A) Whole blood
B) Plasma
C) Serum
D) Buffy coat

C) Serum

99
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What is the term for a localized swelling or mass of coagulated blood formed under the skin, often occurring during or after venipuncture due to blood leakage from the vein into surrounding tissues?

A) Abscess
B) Petechiae
C) Hematoma
D) Edema

C) Hematoma

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For a healthy individual with normal blood clotting ability and not on anticoagulant therapy, what is a typical Prothrombin Time/International Normalized Ratio (PT/INR) value?

A) 0.5
B) 1.0
C) 2.0
D) 3.0

B) 1.0