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79 Terms

1
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What is the primary contraindication for receiving a vaccine?

previous allergic reaction

2
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The Zosters Vaccine is administered to boost the body's immune response to what virus?

The herpes zoster virus, which causes shingles.

3
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What is the primary side effect of first- generation antihistamines like Diphenhydramine?

drowsiness

4
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Corticosteroids, which often end in the suffix _, can cause immunosuppression at high doses.

sone

5
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When discontinuing corticosteroids like prednisone, why must the dose be tapered?

To prevent adrenal suppression.

6
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What is a significant metabolic side effect of corticosteroids like dexamethasone?

They will increase blood glucose levels.

7
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What does the acronym DMARDs stand for?

Disease- Modifying Antirheumatic Drugs.

8
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How long can it take for the DMARD Methotrexate to start working?

It can take 3 to 12 weeks to become effective.

9
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The DMARD Adalimumab deactivates _ to decrease inflammation.

TNF (Tumor Necrosis Factor)

10
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When a patient is taking Adalimumab, what organ toxicity should be monitored for?

Liver toxicity, with signs like abdominal pain, nausea, and jaundice.

11
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The COX- 2 inhibitor Celecoxib (Celebrex) should be taken with food, milk, or water to prevent what side effect?

GI distress

12
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What precaution should be taken when applying topical Capsaicin?

Wear gloves when applying and avoid contact with eyes.

13
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Aspirin is an analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory, and it is also used as a _____ inhibitor.

platelet

14
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What is the classic sign of Aspirin toxicity?

Tinnitus (ringing in the ears).

15
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Why is Aspirin not recommended for children under the age of 18?

Its use is associated with Reye's syndrome, a potentially fatal condition.

16
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While Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is an analgesic and antipyretic, it is NOT an _.

antiinflammatory

17
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What is the maximum recommended daily dose of Acetaminophen (Tylenol)?

4 grams per day.

18
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What is the antidote for Acetaminophen overdose?

Acetylcysteine.

19
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By inhibiting _____, Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) decrease pain.

prostaglandins

20
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Besides GI bleed and platelet inhibition, what is another serious side effect of NSAIDs like ibuprofen?

Nephrotoxicity (kidney damage).

21
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Opioids work by stimulating _ receptors in the Central Nervous System (CNS).

opiate (specifically MU receptors)

22
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What is the most critical adverse effect of opioids to monitor for?

Respiratory depression.

23
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When a patient requires more of an opioid to achieve the same effect, this is known as _, which is not the same as addiction.

tolerance

24
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What is the antagonist or reversal agent for opioids?

Naloxone (Narcan).

25
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When administering an opioid, what is the minimum respiratory rate below which the medication should be held?

A respiratory rate less than 12 breaths per minute.

26
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Due to its shorter half-life compared to most narcotics, what might be necessary after administering Naloxone?

Repeat dosing may be needed as the opioid can outlast the Naloxone.

27
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The serotonin agonist Sumatriptan is a vasoconstrictor, making it dangerous for patients with what conditions?

High blood pressure (Hypertension) or coronary artery disease (Angina).

28
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Benzodiazepines, which often end in the suffix 'pam', affect the levels of what neurotransmitter?

GABA (gamma--aminobutyric acid).

29
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What is the antagonist for benzodiazepines like lorazepam?

Flumazenil.

30
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SSRIs like Fluoxetine (Prozac) may take how long for patients to see results?

4 to 6 weeks.

31
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A patient on an SSRI develops confusion, hyperreflexia, and diaphoresis. What condition should be suspected?

Serotonin syndrome.

32
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Patients taking SSRIs should avoid mixing them with _ because it can exacerbate the risk for GI bleed.

ibuprofen

33
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The atypical antidepressant Bupropion (Wellbutrin) is used for depression, seasonal affective disorder, and _.

smoking cessation

34
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Due to its sedating effects, the SARI antidepressant Trazodone is typically given at what time of day?

At bedtime.

35
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A key nursing observation for a patient taking Phenytoin (Dilantin) is to assess for what oral condition?

Gingival hyperplasia (overgrowth of gum tissue).

36
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The anticonvulsant carbamazepine can cause bone marrow suppression, affecting WBCs and what other blood cell type?

Platelets, which increases the risk of bleeding.

37
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Valproic Acid is highly toxic to the _, and can cause high ammonia levels.

liver

38
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The Alzheimer's drug Donepezil (Aricept) works by increasing which neurotransmitter?

Acetylcholine.

39
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The NMDA receptor antagonist Memantine should not be taken with over-the-counter ________

antacids such as sodium bicarbonates

40
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Which Beta2-adrenergic agonist is the only one indicated for an acute asthma attack?

Albuterol (a short-acting beta agonist or SABA). (4-6 hours)

41
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What are the primary side effects of beta2- adrenergic agonists like albuterol

Tachycardia, tremors, and angina.

42
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Anticholinergic inhalers like ipratropium can cause _ and hoarseness, which can be mitigated by rinsing the mouth after use.

mouth dryness

43
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Why should patients rinse their mouths with water after using an inhaled glucocorticoid like budesonide?

To prevent the growth of yeast or candida (oral thrush).

44
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When a patient is prescribed both an inhaled glucocorticoid and a beta- 2 agonist, which one should be used first?

The beta-2 agonist should be used first to bronchodilate the airways.

45
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For exercise induced bronchospasm, the leukotriene modifier Montelukast should be taken how long before exercise?

2 hours before exercise

46
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The expectorant Guaifenesin works by increasing and thinning mucous secretions, and its effectiveness is maximized by taking it with _.

a full glass of water

47
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The mucolytic Acetylcysteine has a characteristic odor that smells like what?

Rotten eggs.

48
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While taking the methylxanthine Theophylline, patients should be educated to avoid consuming what common substance?

Caffeine, as it can increase the risk of CNS and cardiac adverse effects.

49
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Oseltamivir, an influenza neuraminidase inhibitor, should be started within how many days of symptom onset?

Within 2 days.

50
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ACE Inhibitors, which typically end in 'pril', can cause a life threatening adverse effect called _.

angioedema

51
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What is a common, non- life-threatening side effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril that patients should be monitored for?

A persistent, dry cough.

52
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Beta blockers, which end in 'lol', should not be given if the patient's heart rate is below what value?

Below 60 beats per minute.

53
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The non- selective beta blocker Propranolol is contraindicated in patients with what respiratory condition?

Asthma, due to the risk of bronchospasm.

54
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A common complication of nitroglycerin administration is a _, which can be treated with aspirin or acetaminophen.

headache

55
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Patients taking sublingual nitroglycerin can take one tab every 5 minutes for up to how many doses?

Up to three tabs (over 15 minutes).

56
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To reduce the risk of tolerance, a transdermal nitroglycerin patch should be removed for how long each day?

It should be removed at night to be medication

57
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HMG- CoA reductase inhibitors, known as 'statins', can cause muscle aches and require monitoring of what organ's function?

the liver

58
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Patients taking 'statins' like atorvastatin should be advised to avoid drinking what type of juice?

Grapefruit juice.

59
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The loop diuretic Furosemide can be _, so the nurse must monitor for tinnitus and ringing in the ears.

ototoxic

60
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What is the antidote for the anticoagulant Warfarin?

Vitamin K.

61
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What laboratory value must be monitored for a patient on Warfarin therapy?

The INR (International Normalized Ratio), with an optimum range of 2

62
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How is the thrombin inhibitor Enoxaparin administered?

As a deep subcutaneous injection in the abdomen, at least 2 inches from the umbilicus.

63
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The sulfonylurea drug Glipizide works by stimulating islet cells in the _ to produce insulin.

pancreas

64
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Kidney insufficiency in a patient taking Metformin increases the risk for what serious condition?

Lactic acidosis.

65
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The thiazolidinedione Pioglitazone reduces insulin resistance and requires monitoring for signs of what condition?

Heart failure (e.g., fluid retention, edema, weight gain).

66
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The alpha- glucoside inhibitor Acarbose slows the absorption of carbohydrates and should be given when?

at the beginning of meals

67
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Which type of insulin is considered rapid acting?

Lispro (Humalog) or Novolog.

68
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Which type of insulin is considered long acting?

Glargine (Lantus) or Detemir.

69
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When mixing short- acting and long acting insulins, you should draw up _____ before _____.

clear before cloudy (or short-acting before long-acting)

70
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The hyperglycemic agent Glucagon raises blood sugar levels and can cause _ as a side effect after administration.

nausea and vomiting

71
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The thyroid replacement medication Levothyroxine should be given on an empty stomach how long before meals?

30 minutes before meals.

72
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Tachycardia, tremors, and insomnia are signs of an overdose of what thyroid medication?

Levothyroxine.

73
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If a patient taking penicillin develops a rash, hives, or wheezing, what is the primary concern?

An allergic reaction.

74
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Vancomycin is used to treat methicillin- resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and _

C- diff

75
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If a patient develops flushing of the face and trunk, tachycardia, and a rash during a vancomycin infusion, what is the likely cause?

Red man syndrome, caused by too rapid infusion

76
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Tetracycline antibiotics are not given to children under age 8 because they can cause what?

Permanent discoloration of teeth (brown or yellow).

77
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Both Erythromycin (a macrolide) and Gentamycin (an aminoglycoside) can be _, requiring monitoring for hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus.

ototoxic

78
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The fluoroquinolone Ciprofloxacin is associated with a risk of pain and rupture of which tendon?

The Achilles tendon.

79
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Patients taking sulfonamides like sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) should be instructed to _ to prevent complications.

increase fluid intake