BMS 302 Unit 2 Exam

glycogenesis

glucose to glycogen; reduces blood glucose levels

glycogenolysis

glycogen to glucose; increases blood glucose levels

gluconeogenesis

amino acids and glycerol to glucose; increases blood glucose levels

Glycogenolysis is a ______ process that occurs primarily ______

degradative; during the fasting state

Glycogenesis is a ______ process that occurs primarily ______.

synthetic; following a meal

Gluconeogenesis is a ______ process that occurs primarily ______

synthetic; during the fasting state

lipogenesis

glucose to lipids; reduces blood glucose levels

What cells do not require insulin for glucose transport?

nervous tissue and liver cells

Insulin (release, activates, affect on blood glucose, release)

is released from beta cells in the pancreas, activates glucose transporter molecules, decreases blood glucose levels, release is stimulated by increased blood glucose levels

Which of these metabolic processes are stimulated by or require the presence of insulin?

glycogenesis and lipogenesis

Glucagon

is released from alpha cells in the pancreas, release is stimulated by decreased blood glucose levels, increases blood glucose levels

Which metabolic processes are stimulated by glucagon in the liver?

glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

Epinephrine

increases blood glucose levels, release is stimulated by stress, is released from the adrenal medulla, is a hormone, stimulates glycogenolysis

hyperglycemia

glucose remains in blood because it cannot be transported into cells for use and storage

glucosuria

glucose levels in blood become so high that they exceed the kidney's ability to reabsorb glucose so glucose is found in the urine

polyuria

increased osmolality of urine due to glucose in urine causes large quantities of fluid to be excreted in an attempt to dilute urine

polydipsia

dehydration results in an increased thirst as the body attempts to rehydrate

Type 1 diabetes information:

decreased insulin production, fasting blood glucose greater than 126 mg/dl, treated with insulin injections

Type 2 diabetes is characterized by:

decreased receptor number or function, fasting blood glucose greater than 126 mg/dl, treatment of oral meds or exercise

Diabetic coma is characterized by:

too little insulin, hyperglycemia

Insulin shock is characterized by:

too much insulin, very low blood glucose levels (hypoglycemia)

The results from glucose tolerance tests on subjects with diabetes would show:

fasting glucose levels of 126 mg% or more, two hour post glucose load glucose levels of 200 mg% or more, return to fasting within 4-5 hours following glucose load, presence of glucose in the urine.

The results from glucose tolerance tests on subjects with normal glucose control would show:

fasting glucose levels of 60-110 mg%, two hour post glucose load glucose levels of 140 mg% or less, return to fasting within 2-3 hours following glucose load, absence of glucose in the urine

Which photoreceptor is responsible for night (low acuity, low light threshold) vision?

Rods

The relative concentrations of cones is greater in the _____ than the _____ of the retina.

fovea; periphery

The relative concentrations of rods is greater in the _____ than the _____ of the retina.

periphery; fovea

The fovea:

provides the area of greatest acuity., is where we direct our focus when trying to view an object, is the area where the four layers of accessory neurons and blood vessels are pulled to the side, allows light to directly stimulate the cones

The site where the optic nerve and blood vessels leave the retina:

is the blind spot with no photoreceptors

What two factors determine the refractive power of a lens?

The difference in the refractive indices of the two media, The angle at which light enters a lens

The interface which produces the most refraction of light in the normal eye is

air-cornea

List the four components of the refractive system of the eye in order from the air to the retina

cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor

Which of the four components of the eye's refractive system is not fixed and can change its refractive power as needed?

the lens

A concave lens is

diverging with negative diopter

A convex lens is

converging with positive diopter

What three reflexes are associated with the near response?

accommodation, pupillary, and convergence reflexes

Why is the accommodation reflex necessary to focus the image of a near object on the retina? Near light rays are _____ and require a ______ refractive power to focus on the retina.

diverging; greater

In the accommodation reflex, the ciliary muscle _______, which ______ the tension on the suspensory ligaments, and _____ the refractive power of the lens.

contracts; decreases; increases

Contraction of the ciliary muscle is the result of

Increased PANS

Relaxation of the ciliary muscle is the result of

Decreased PANS

What type of muscle is the ciliary muscle?

multi-unit smooth

Eye drops containing atropine, a cholinergic antagonist, are routinely administered before cataract surgery. What effect do these drops have on the ciliary muscle and the lens of the patient's eye?

block ciliary muscle contraction; keeps lens flat

Light rays entering the eye from a distant source are____, while light rays from near sources are _____.

parallel; diverging

Ciliary muscles _____ for distant vision, and _____ for near vision.

relax, contract

The near point of vision

changes as the lens loses its elasticity and increases with advancing age

Where is the focal point for near vision (with respect to the retina) in uncorrected presbyopia?

behind the retina

What type of lens corrects presbyopia?

convex spherical

The pupillary reflex is:

is part of the near response, involves pupillary constriction occurring simultaneously with the accommodation reflex, helps improve the acuity of near vision by reducing the divergent light rays from the near source

What Autonomic Nervous System activity is responsible for active pupillary dilation?

Increased SANS

What Autonomic Nervous System activity is responsible for active pupillary constriction?

Increased PANS

What type of muscle is found in the iris?

Multi-unit smooth muscle

The convergence reflex:

prevents double vision, focuses the image on the fovea of both eyes, assists with near vision by moving the eyeballs inward to achieve a single image when viewing near objects

How is correction of hyperopia accomplished?

by adding to the refractive power of the eye's refractive system therefore shortening the focal length so the focal point falls on the retina

How is correction of myopia accomplished?

by reducing the refractive power of the eye's refractive system therefore extending the focal length so that the focal point falls on the retina

20/20 vision

normal visual acuity: subject standing at 20 feet from the chart sees what Snellen's assistant saw at 20 feet.

20/10 vision

better than normal acuity: subject see at 20 feet what someone with 20/20 vision could see at 10 feet.

20/200 vision

poor visual acuity: subject must stand at 20 feet to see what someone with 20/20 vision sees at 200 feet

Astigmatism is the result of:

a difference in refractive power in one or more axes of the refractive system

What are two potential causes of astigmatism?

irregularly shaped cornea or lens

If one observes an astigmatism chart and sees a blurred lines in the 2-8 axis, they can conclude:

The refraction of light in the 2-8 axis is different than in the other axes and they have an astigmatism

A spherical lens has a _____focus, while the cylindrical lens has a _____ focus.

point; line

A spherical lens focuses light in _____, while the cylindrical lens focuses light in____.

all axes; one axis

A ______ can be used to correct astigmatism.

cylindrical lens

List the blood types with each antigen and antibody

Type A= A antigen, b antibody; Type B= B antigen, a antibody; Type AB= both A and B antigens, no antibodies; Type O= no antigens, a and b antibodies

Antibodies a and b are called naturally occurring antibodies because:

they are the result of natural exposure to substances in our environment during the first few months of our life and they form naturally in anyone who does not have the corresponding antigen on the surface of their red cells

An Rh negative man is tested and shown to have Rh antibodies. How do you explain this?

He received an Rh positive blood transfusion at some time in his life.

A Rh negative woman delivers a baby with Rh positive blood. This baby will suffer from erythroblastosis fetalis only if:

the mother previously delivered an Rh positive baby and did not receive RhoGam.

What individuals will have Rh antibodies?

an Rh negative individual who has received a transfusion of Rh positive blood, a Rh negative woman who has delivered a Rh positive child and not received a RhoGam injection

Treatment of a Rh negative woman giving birth to a Rh positive baby using RhoGam:

must be done within 72 hours of delivery, injects the mother with Rh antibodies that destroy any fetal Rh positive cells before they can cause an immune response, prevents the production of Rh antibodies in the mother, must be done following the delivery of all Rh positive babies

Whole blood definition

Formed elements plus plasma

Serum definition

Plasma with fibrinogen removed, collected without anti-coagulant, cells allowed to clot

Clot definition

Fibrin plus formed elements following coagulation process

Buffy coat definition

White cells plus platelets

Plasma definition

Liquid fraction of blood with anti-coagulant added

Formed elements of blood

Red cells, white cells, platelets

Agglutination vs coagulation

Coagulation is due to the activation of some plasma factors and agglutination is due to an antigen-antibody reaction

Blood is drawn into a test tube from a person with Type A blood. After clotting, the cells are discarded and the remaining liquid, which is __________ contains ___________

serum; b antibodies

List the three rules of blood typing.

1. antigens are on the cell; antibodies are in the serum or plasma

2. agglutination only occurs in the presence of both the antigen and its corresponding antibody

3. the antigens on the red blood cell determine the blood type

intercalated discs

anatomical structure responsible for spread of wave of depolarization from cell to cell in cardiac tissue

exoskeleton, fibrotendonous rings

anatomical structure that prevents the spreading of action potentials directly from the atrial myocardium to the ventricular myocardium

Which type of cardiac cells demonstrate slow response action potentials?

SA node, AV node, ectopic pacemaker cells

Which type of cardiac cells demonstrate fast response action potentials?

bundle of His, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers, ventricular and atrial muscle cells

Increasing the prepotential slope _____ the rate of spontaneous depolarizations of pacemaker cells, while decreasing the prepotential slope _____the rate of spontaneous depolarizations of pacemaker cells.

increases, decreases

Pacemaker cells in S-A node have a _______ slope than pacemaker cells in A-V node and therefore have a ______ rate of spontaneous depolarization.

steeper, faster

An electrocardiogram is a record of:

electrical impulse conduction through the heart, extracellular recording of the sum of all the electrical activity of the heart over time

The frontal bipolar ECG Lead II most represents the direction of the wave of depolarization through the heart because the negative electrode is on the ______ and the positive electrode is on the ______.

right arm; left leg

increased P wave duration

damaged atrial cells as the result of ischemia

increased PR interval

interference with conduction between S-A node and Purkinje fibers

increased QRS duration

non-simultaneous activation of ventricles

Decreasing the heart rate _____ QT interval.

increases

What conditions are or can be associated with a left mean electrical axis deviation?

systemic hypertension and left ventricular hypertrophy, obesity, pregnancy

Which of the following conditions are associated with a right mean electrical axis deviation?

pulmonary hypertension and right ventricular hypertrophy

Impairment of conduction between SA node and Purkinje system is caused by

atrioventricular block causing a prolonged PR interval

Impairment of conduction through bundle branches, ventricles activated at different times is caused by

bundle branch block causing a prolonged QRS interval