Ella Kulman Microbiology

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76 Terms

1
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define commensal

an organism that colonises the host but causes no disease

2
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define virulence

the degree to which a given organism is pathogenic

3
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what would gram positive bacteria look like down a microscope?

purple/blue

4
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what would gram negative bacteria look like down the microscope?

pink/red

5
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what type of organism would you stain with Ziehl Neelson?

mycobacteria e.g. TB

6
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give an example of a slow growing bacteria

TB

7
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give an example of a fast growing bacteria

E.coli and S.aureus

8
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what types of bacteria release endotoxin?

gram negative

9
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what types of bacteria release exotoxin?

gram positive and gram negative

10
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what are plasmids?

circular pieces of DNA that often carry genes for antibiotic resistance

11
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give an example of a gram negative diplococci

Neisseria e.g. N.meningitidis and N.gonorrhoeae

12
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give an example of a gram positive cocci

staphylococcus and streptococcus

13
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what can be done to distinguish between staphylococcus and streptococcus?

catalase test → staph=catalase +ve, strep=catalase -ve

14
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how would you describe the arrangement of staphylococci?

clusters of cocci

15
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how would you describe the arrangement of streptococci?

chains of cocci

16
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what bacteria would be coagulase positive?

staphylococci aureus

17
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what bacteria would be coagulase negative?

all others e.g. staphylococci epidermis

18
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give examples of gram negative bacilli

shigella, salmonella, E.coli etc

19
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give examples of gram positive bacilli

clostridium, bacillus, cornyebacterium etc

20
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what kind of bacteria is MacConkey agar used with?

gram negative bacilli

21
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name 2 gram negative bacilli that will give a positive result with MacConkey agar

1. E.Coli
2. Klebsiella pneumoniae

22
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where in the body might you find staphylococci?

nose and skin

23
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how is staph aureus spread?

aerosol and touch

24
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how is c.diptheriae spread?

droplet spread

25
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which type of e.coli would you associate with causing travellers diarrhoea?

enterotoxigenic e.coli (ETEC)

26
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what are the symptoms of enteropathogenic e.coli infection?

chronic watery diarrhoea

27
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what are the symptoms of enterohaemorrhagic e.coli?

bloody diarrhoea

28
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what are the symptoms of shigella infection?

severe bloody diarrhoea and frequent passage

29
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how is shigella passed on?

via contaminated food/water or from person to person

30
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what is gastroenteritis?

frequent cause of food poisoning - 24hr incubation period

31
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what is enteric fever?

typhoid fever - systemic disease

32
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why is v.cholerae so dangerous?

pt is losing huge amounts of water which can result in hypovolaemic shock and severe dehydration - this can lead to death

33
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why is v.cholerae not killed if you have a fever?

grows at 18-42°C

34
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how would you grow haemophilus influenzae?

on chocolate agar as it requires haem and NAD

35
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what diseases can haemophilus influenzae cause?

meningitis and pneumonia

36
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how is N.meningitidis spread?

aerosol transmission - high risk in colonised people e.g. uni/Haj

37
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how can you detect chlamydia?

serum antibodies or PCR - won't grow on agar

38
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name the spirochaete that is responsible for causing syphilis

T. pallidum

39
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why are severe fungal infections rare?

fungi are unable to grow at 37°C and are often killed by the innate and adaptive immune response

40
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what fungal infection can often be a presenting factor for HIV?

pneumocystitis pneumonia - its an opportunistic infection that can cause lung infection in immunocompromised people

41
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which group of streptococci can cause infective endocarditis?

alpha haemolytic streptococci

42
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what signs and symptoms might you see in someone who has been infected with malaria?

fever, haemolysis, chills, sweats, headaches etc

43
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give an example of a virus that causes damage by direct destruction of host cells

poliovirus or HIV

44
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give an example of a virus that causes damage by triggering host cell 'over-reactivity' as a response to infection

hep B and C, HIV

45
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what cells act as 'host cells' for HIV?

CD4+ cells - macrophages/dendritic cells can also be invaded by HIV

46
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what is the effect of HIV infection on CD4 count?

HIV leads to uncontrolled CD4 activation and apoptosis - CD4 numbers decrease over time

47
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what is a clinically important gram positive resistant bacteria?

MRSA

48
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what antibiotic might be used in the treatment for s.pneumoniae?

amoxicillin

49
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when might you use penicillin?

for skin/soft tissue infections, endocarditis

50
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give an advantage of penicillin

has a narrow spectrum so there is a reduced chance of resistance

51
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amoxicillin can be given to people infected with which bacteria?

H.influenzae, enterococci, e.coli, shigella, streptococci etc

52
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what antibiotic would be given to someone infected with staph. aureus?

flucloxacillin

53
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pt presents with cellulitis, what antibiotic might you give them?

flucloxacillin - s.pyogenes and staph.aureus are often a cause of cellulitis

54
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what types of bacteria do monobactams work against?

gram negative bacilli

55
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why would you give someone monobactams?

if they have a penicillin allergy

56
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what types of bacteria does vancomycin work against?

gram positive only - good for MRSA treatment

57
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pt presents with UTI, what antibiotic might you give them?

trimethoprim

58
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what virus can cause shingles?

varicella zoster virus

59
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name 3 resp diseases associated with HIV

-bacterial (pneumococcal) pneumonia
-TB
-pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)

60
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name 4 diseases that haemophilus influenzae can cause

1. meningitis
2. otitis media
3. pharyngitis
4. exacerbations of COPD

61
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name 6 vaccine preventable diseases that are notifiable

1. diptheria
2. measles
3. mumps
4. rubella
5. tetanus
6. whooping cough

62
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name 1 staph and 1 strep that can cause impetigo

staph aureus and strep pyogenes

63
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give 2 examples of protozoa that can cause diarrhoea

1. cryptosporidium
2. giardia lamblia

64
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name a bacteria that can cause ascending cholangitis

klebsiella pneumoniae

65
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what key additional tests need to be performed in someone with MRSA?

1. echo - to rule out endocarditis
2. spinal MRI

66
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what is the first line treatment for meningitis?

cefotaxime

67
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what would the CSF cell count look like for viral meningitis?

-high lymphocytes
-normal/high protein
-normal glucose

68
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what would the CSF cell count look like for bacterial meningitis?

-raised neutrophils
-high protein
-low glucose

69
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what 3 viruses can cause encephalitis?

-herpes simplex virus
-varicella zoster virus
-HIV

70
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what layer of the skin is affected in cellulitis?

sub-cutaneous layer

71
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name 2 bacteria that can cause cellulitis

1. S.pyogenes
2. S.aureus

72
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what disease is it important to rule out in someone with cellulitis?

DVT!!!!

73
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name 4 species of the plasmodia genus that cause malaria

1. P.falciparum
2. P.ovale
3. P.vivax
4. P.malariae

74
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what is the treatment for malaria?

chloroquine

75
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what growth medium can be used to culture mycobacteria?

Lowenstein Jensen

76
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what organism can cause neonatal sepsis?

group B streptococci